Showing posts with label Postpartum. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Postpartum. Show all posts

The nurse is caring for a post-term, small-for-gestational age (SGA) newborn infant immediately after admission to the nursery.. Blood glucose levels

The nurse is caring for a post-term, small-for-gestational age (SGA) newborn infant immediately after admission to the nursery.

The priority nursing action would be to monitor which of the following?
  • A- Urinary output.
  • B- Total bilirubin levels.
  • C- Blood glucose levels.
  • D- Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

For a post-term, SGA newborn infant, the priority nursing action among the listed options is C. Blood glucose levels.

Here's why:

- Post-term:

Post-term infants are those born after 42 weeks of gestation and are at increased risk for hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) due to depleted placental glycogen stores.

- SGA:

SGA infants are smaller than expected for their gestational age and have limited glycogen reserves, further increasing the risk of hypoglycemia.

- Hypoglycemia:

Hypoglycemia in newborns can lead to serious complications like seizures, brain damage, and even death if not identified and treated promptly.

- Other options:

While other listed parameters like urinary output, bilirubin levels, and hemoglobin/hematocrit are important to monitor, they are not as critical in the immediate management of a post-term, SGA newborn compared to blood glucose levels.

Therefore, the nurse's immediate priority should be to monitor the infant's blood glucose levels closely, typically every 1-2 hours in the first few hours after birth, and more frequently if hypoglycemia is suspected. Early detection and timely intervention with glucose supplementation can prevent serious complications.

Of course, the nurse should also monitor other vital signs, including temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate, and perform a thorough physical assessment to identify any other potential issues.

A nurse is performing Apgar scoring for a newborn infant immediately after birththe newborn infant sneezes when suctioned by the bulb syringe, and the skin color is pink

A nurse is performing Apgar scoring for a newborn infant immediately after birth.

The nurse notes that the heart rate is greater than 100 beats/min, the respiratory effort is good, muscle tone is active, the newborn infant sneezes when suctioned by the bulb syringe, and the skin color is pink.
On the basis of these findings, the nurse would document which of the following Apgar scores?
  • A- 3
  • B- 5
  • C- 7
  • D- 10

The nurse would document an Apgar score of C. 7 based on the provided information.

Here's why:

  • Heart rate > 100 beats/min: This earns 2 points.
  • Good respiratory effort: This earns 2 points.
  • Active muscle tone: This earns 2 points.
  • Sneezing reflex: This earns 1 point for reflex irritability.
  • Pink skin color: This earns 2 points.
Adding up the points for each of these categories, we get a total of 9 points (2 + 2 + 2 + 1 + 2). Therefore, the most appropriate Apgar score to document would be 7.

Details:

Here's a breakdown of the full Apgar scoring system:
  • 0-3 points: Indicates severe infant depression
  • 4-6 points: Indicates moderate infant depression
  • 7-9 points: Indicates a vigorous newborn
  • 10 points: This score is very rare and not always achievable due to the physiological adaptations required for transitioning from the womb to the outside world.
It's important to note that the Apgar score is just one indicator of a newborn's health and should be interpreted in conjunction with other assessments and examinations.

A postpartum unit nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is at risk for thrombophlebitis.. Palpate for pedal pulses

A postpartum unit nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is at risk for thrombophlebitis.

Which of the following nursing actions is indicated in assessing for thrombophlebitis?
  • a) Ask the client to ambulate and assess for the presence of pain.
  • b) Ask the client about pain in the calf area.
  • c) Palpate for pedal pulses.
  • d) Assess for the presence of vaginal hematoma.

The correct answer is: b) Ask the client about pain in the calf area.

Here's why:
  • Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and blood clot formation in a vein. It is a common complication after delivery, especially in women who have had cesarean sections or who have other risk factors such as obesity or immobility.
  • Pain in the calf area is a common symptom of thrombophlebitis in the leg. The pain may be described as sharp, throbbing, or aching, and it may be worse when the client walks or flexes the foot.
  • While the other actions listed may be relevant to postpartum care, they are not specifically related to assessing for thrombophlebitis.

Here's why the other options are less relevant:

a) Ask the client to ambulate and assess for the presence of pain:

While ambulating can help to prevent thrombophlebitis, it is not the most specific way to assess for the condition. Pain is a more direct indicator.

c) Palpate for pedal pulses:

This is a routine part of a postpartum assessment, but it is not specific to thrombophlebitis. Diminished or absent pulses could indicate a more serious condition called deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

d) Assess for the presence of vaginal hematoma:

This is another potential complication after delivery, but it is not related to thrombophlebitis.

Therefore, the most specific and relevant action to assess for thrombophlebitis in a postpartum client is to ask the client about pain in the calf area.

A postpartum client is being treated for deep vein thrombosis.. Hematuria, ecchymosis, and vertigo

A postpartum client is being treated for deep vein thrombosis.


A nurse understands that the client's response to treatment will be evaluated by regularly assessing the client for:


a- Dysuria, ecchymosis, and vertigo

b- Epistaxis, hematuria, and dysuria

c- Hematuria, ecchymosis, and vertigo

d- Hematuria, ecchymosis, and epistaxis.

What is deep vein thrombosis?

Blood clots are your body's first line of defense against bleeding.
In response to injury, coagulation is an essential function, perhaps even life-saving.

But when the body's normal mechanisms are disrupted, blood clots can form when they're not needed in places that make them dangerous.

A blood clot that develops in a major deep vein is called a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). DVT can pose a serious threat to your health if it is not diagnosed and treated early.

Deep vein thrombosis is a condition in which blood clots or forms a thrombus in one of the deep veins in your body.

This occurs primarily in the lower extremities, but blood clots can also develop in deep veins in other areas of the body.

DVT is a serious condition because a blood clot that has formed in the vein can break loose, travel through the bloodstream, and lodge in the lungs, blocking blood flow.

Even if a blood clot remains in place, it can permanently damage the valves within the vein.
This damage can lead to chronic leg problems, such as swelling, pain, and leg sores.

Every year about 2 million people will develop deep vein thrombosis and about 200,000 of them die.
DVT kills more people than AIDS, breast cancer, and car accidents combined. It is important to detect and treat DVT early for the best prognosis.

What causes DVT?

In the event of injury, bleeding triggers a biological “domino effect” that sets a series of steps in motion.

Platelets and proteins called clotting factors work together to seal off the damaged blood vessel and stop bleeding.

The blood clot dissolves when it is no longer needed.
Blood clotting disorders can occur if the lining of a vein is damaged, if blood flow is too slow, or if a condition or medication causes blood to clot more easily.

DVT is the result of a clot that forms inside a deep vein and prevents blood from circulating normally through your body.

What can happen if DVT is not treated?

Untreated DVT can lead to illness, disability, and in some cases, death.

The most serious complication of DVT is pulmonary embolism, a blockage that occurs when part of the clot breaks free and travels through the bloodstream to the lungs.

A small enough clot can be treated, but a large clot can prevent blood from reaching the lungs, making the condition fatal.

DVT can also damage the vein and lead to long-term complications from chronic venous insufficiency or post-thrombotic syndrome.

These conditions are characterized by chronic swelling, pain, skin discoloration, scaling, and venous stasis ulcers.

The symptoms may eventually become severe enough to cause disability. But there are treatments available.

The mother of a 1-month-old infant is bottle-feeding her infant and asks the nurse about the stomach capacity of an infant. The nurse responds knowing that the stomach capacity for a 1-month-old infant is approximately

The mother of a 1-month-old infant is bottle-feeding her infant and asks the nurse about the stomach capacity of an infant. The nurse responds knowing that the stomach capacity for a 1-month-old infant is approximately:

  1.  10 to 20 mL
  2.  30 to 90 mL
  3.  75 to 100 mL
  4.  90 to 150 mL.

Limitations of Breastfeeding

With all the good things known about breastfeeding, why doesn't every mother choose to breastfeed?


Breastfeeding requires a big commitment from a mother. Some new moms feel tied down by the demands of a nursing newborn. Because breast milk is easily digested, breastfed babies tend to eat more often than babies who are fed formula. This means moms can be in demand as often as every 2 or 3 hours in the first few weeks. This can be tiring, but it's not long before babies feed less often and sleep longer at night.

Some new mothers need to get back to work outside the home or separate from their babies from time to time for other reasons. Some opt for formula feeding so other caregivers can give the baby a bottle. Mothers who want to continue breastfeeding can use a breast pump to collect breast milk to be given in a bottle, so their babies still get its benefits even when mom isn't there to breastfeed.

Fathers and other family members may want to share in feeding the baby. When mom is breastfeeding, dad or siblings may want to stay close by. Helping mom get comfortable, or providing a burp cloth when needed, will let them be part of the experience.

When breastfeeding is going well, other family members can help by giving the baby pumped breast milk in a bottle when mom needs a break.

Some moms may feel embarrassed or worried about breastfeeding. These feelings usually end after a successful breastfeeding process is set. It can help to get advice from those who've gone through the experience. Most hospitals and birthing centers offer in-depth instruction on breastfeeding to new moms. Your pediatrician, nurse practitioner, or nurse can answer questions or put you in touch with a lactation consultant or a breastfeeding support group.

In some cases, a mother's health may affect her ability to breastfeed. Moms getting chemotherapy for cancer and those who have HIV should not breastfeed, for example.

If you have a medical condition or take any medicines regularly, talk with your doctor about whether it's OK to breastfeed. If you have to stop nursing temporarily, continue to pump breast milk to maintain milk production. If you or your baby are sick, continue to breastfeed if you can. Talk to the doctor if you have any concerns.

In some situations, it may not possible to breastfeed, such as when a baby is very sick or born early. Mothers should talk with their baby's doctor about expressing and storing milk. Often, a baby who can't breastfeed can get breast milk through a feeding tube or bottle.

Some moms who have inverted nipples may have trouble breastfeeding, but a lactation consultant usually can help them overcome this. Likewise, women who have had plastic surgery on their breasts should be able to successfully breastfeed. Talk with your doctor if you have any concerns.

Hold off on pacifiers or bottles until your baby has gotten used to and is good at breastfeeding. Lactation professionals recommend waiting until a baby is about 3–4 weeks old before offering artificial nipples of any kind (including pacifiers).

How do I introduce my 1 month old to a bottle?

Tickle the baby's mouth to encourage an open mouth then bring baby up onto the bottle nipple, aiming the nipple toward the palate. Some have found that it can help to have an article of clothing you have worn, like a nightgown or t-shirt, to place on their arm, shoulder, or chest where the baby can smell your scent.

What is the difference in psychological development between bottle fed and breastfed babies?

Mothers who breastfeed have been found to report lower levels of perceived stress and negative mood, higher levels of maternal attachment, and tend to perceive their infants more positively than mothers who formula-feed.

What is a reason a mother might choose to bottle feed her infant instead of breast feed?

Scheduling feedings may be easier. Formula isn't digested as quickly as breast milk, so formula-fed babies don't need to eat as often, especially in the first few months. You don't have to worry about what you eat. Moms who breastfeed may have to avoid certain foods that their baby can't tolerate.

Which of the following is an advantage of breastfeeding an infant over formula feeding quizlet?

Breastfeeding offers a good chance for bonding with the infant. Breastfeeding reduces the risk of breast cancer and enhances uterine involution. It provides the opportunity for mother-infant bonding.

What's the difference between a breastfed baby and a bottle fed baby?

As a group, breastfed infants have less difficulty with digestion than do formula-fed infants. Breast milk tends to be more easily digested so that breastfed babies have fewer bouts of diarrhea or constipation. Breast milk also naturally contains many of the vitamins and minerals that a newborn requires.

Is there a difference between bottle fed and breastfed babies?

Compared with formula, the nutrients in breastmilk are better absorbed and used by your baby. These include sugar (carbohydrate) and protein. Breastmilk has the nutrients that are best for your baby's brain growth and nervous system development.

How often does a 1 month old bottle feed?

Most infant formula-fed newborns will feed 8 to 12 times in 24 hours. Talk with your child's doctor or nurse about how much infant formula is right for your baby. As your baby grows, his or her belly grows too.

How many ounces of formula should a 1 month old have a day?

​In the first week after birth, babies should be eating no more than about 1 to 2 ounces (30 to 60 ml) per feed. During the first month, babies gradually eat more until they take 3 to 4 ounces (90 to 120 ml) per feed, amounting to 32 ounces per day.

Why is my 1 month old fussy during bottle feeding?

If you're bottle feeding, your baby may be crying during a feed because the flow of the nipple you're using is too fast or too slow and they're not getting enough milk. Double check that the teat you're using is correct for your baby's age and sucking ability.

How many ounces of breastmilk should a 1 month old drink?

Between the ages of 1 and 4 months old, most breastfed babies will eat about 2 to 4 ounces (59 ml to 118 ml) of breastmilk every 3 hours during the day. Every baby is different, and it is normal if your baby sometimes eats less or sometimes eats more at a given feeding.

Can I bottle feed during the day and breastfeed at night?

Is it OK to breastfeed during the day and formula feed at night? Yes! Combo feeding is a great way to extend your breastfeeding journey. Feeding your baby can happen many different ways.

How long should a 1 month old breastfeed each feed?

Duration. During the newborn period, most breastfeeding sessions take 20 to 45 minutes. However, because newborn babies are often sleepy, this length of time may require patience and persistence. Feed on the first side until your baby stops suckling, hands are no longer fisted, and your baby appears sleepy and relaxed.

How much time should I feed my 1 month old baby?

By the time your baby is 1–2 months old, he or she probably will nurse 7–9 times a day. In the first few weeks of life, breastfeeding should be "on demand" (when your baby is hungry), which is about every 1-1/2 to 3 hours. As newborns get older, they'll nurse less often, and may have a more predictable schedule.

What to do if my newborn baby refuses to breastfeed but will take a bottle?

If your baby takes a bottle but not the breast, try a bait-and-switch. Start by bottle-feeding in a breastfeeding position and, while baby is actively sucking and swallowing, pull out the bottle nipple and insert yours. Some babies will just keep suckling.

What are the side effects of bottle feeding?

This can increase your baby's risk of choking, ear infections, and tooth decay. Your baby may also eat more than he or she needs. Do not put your baby to bed with a bottle. Milk can pool around the baby's teeth and this can cause tooth decay.

A nurse is caring for four 1-day postpartum clients. Which client has an abnormal finding that would require further intervention.. The client with mild afterpains

A nurse is caring for four 1-day postpartum clients.
Which client has an abnormal finding that would require further intervention?

a) The client with mild afterpains

b) The client with a pulse rate of 60 beats/min

c) The client with colostrum discharge from both breasts.

d) The client with lochia that is red and has a foul-smelling odor.

Administration of anticoagulants.. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a postpartum client who was diagnosed with superficial venous thrombosis

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a postpartum client who was diagnosed with superficial venous thrombosis.
Which of the following interventions is a component of the plan of care?

a- Ambulation four to six times daily

b- Administration of anticoagulants

c- Elevation of the affected extremity

d- Application of ice packs to the affected area.

On the second postpartum day, a woman complains of burning on urination, urgency, and frequency of urination. A urinalysis is done, and the results indicate the presence of a urinary tract infection

On the second postpartum day, a woman complains of burning on urination, urgency, and frequency of urination.
A urinalysis is done, and the results indicate the presence of a urinary tract infection.
The nurse instructs the new mother regarding measures to take for treatment of the infection.
Which of the following statements, if made by the mother, would indicate a need for further instructions?

a) "The prescribed medication must be taken until it is finished."

b) "My fluid intake should be increased to at least 3000 mL daily."

c) "I need to urinate frequently throughout the day."

d) "Foods and fluids that will increase urine alkalinity should be consumed."

A nurse performs an assessment on a client who is 4 hours postpartum. The nurse notes that the client has cool, clammy skin and is restless and excessively thirsty

A nurse performs an assessment on a client who is 4 hours postpartum.
The nurse notes that the client has cool, clammy skin and is restless and excessively thirsty.
The nurse prepares immediately to:

a- Begin fundal massage.

b- Begin hourly pad counts and reassure the client.

c- Elevate the head of the bed and assess vital signs.

d- Assess for hypovolemia and notify the health care provider.

On delivery of a newborn infant, a nurse performs an initial assessment of the infant. The nurse plans to determine the Apgar score

On delivery of a newborn infant, a nurse performs an initial assessment of the infant. The nurse plans to determine the Apgar score:
a) At 1 minute after birth and 5 minutes after birth
b) Immediately at birth, 3 minutes after birth, and 10 minutes after birth
c) At 1 minute after birth, 5 minutes after birth, and 10 minutes after birth
d) At 1 minute after birth, after the cord is cut, and after the mother delivers the placenta.
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Apgar's score, the first test to evaluate a newborn, is carried out in the delivery room immediately after the baby is born. This test was developed by the anesthetist Virginia Apgar in 1952 to know as quickly as possible the physical condition of a newborn and to determine any immediate need for additional medical care or emergency treatment.
The test is usually given to the baby twice: the first time, one minute after birth and the second time, five minutes after birth. Sometimes, if the baby's physical condition is worrisome or if the result of the second test is low, the baby can be evaluated a third time 10 minutes after birth.
Five factors are used to assess the physical condition of the baby and each factor is evaluated on a scale from 0 to 2, with 2 being the highest possible score. The factors are as follows:
- appearance (skin color).
- pulse (heart rate).
- irritability (reflex response).
- activity and muscle tone.
- breathing (rhythm and respiratory effort).
Doctors, midwives (midwives) and nurses add the scores of these five factors to calculate the Apgar score. The score a baby can get ranges from 0 to 10, with 10 being the highest possible score.

What does the Apgar score mean?
A baby who gets a score of 8 or higher on the Apgar test is usually considered to have good health. However, getting a lower score does not mean that the baby is sick or has abnormalities. The only thing that means is that the baby needs some special immediate treatment, such as sucking the airways or administering oxygen, to help him breathe, after which he will improve.
Five minutes after birth, the Apgar test is performed again. If the baby's score was low on the first evaluation and it is found that it has not improved or the medical staff is concerned about the condition of the baby for other reasons, the medical and nursing staff will continue to apply the necessary treatment to the baby and will monitor it carefully. Some babies are born with conditions that require special medical care and there are others who have more time than usual to adapt to extrauterine life. Most babies who get Apgar scores a little low on the first evaluation end up adapting well after a short time.
It is important that first-time parents consider the Apgar score with some relativity. The test was developed to help health professionals assess the physical condition of a newborn in order to know as soon as possible whether or not the baby needs immediate medical care. It was not developed to predict the health status, behavior, intellectual level, personality or long-term performance of a baby. Very few babies get the maximum score of 10, since their hands and feet tend to remain bluish until they get warm. And there are completely healthy babies who get lower scores than usual, especially the first time they are tested.
Keep in mind that slightly low Apgar scores (especially those obtained one minute after birth) are common in some newborns, especially those born in high-risk births, after a C-section or in complicated births. Low Apgar scores are also typical of premature babies, who tend to have less muscle tone than term babies and who, in many cases, require more supervision and respiratory support due to their lung immaturity.
If your child's pediatrician and / or midwife (midwife) are concerned about the Apgar score obtained, they will let you know and explain what may be causing problems for your baby, if any, and what treatment is receiving.
With the time needed to adapt to their new extrauterine environment and vpm the necessary medical care, most babies respond well. So, instead of focusing so much on a figure, dedicate yourself to enjoying the arrival of your newborn!

A nurse is caring for a newborn infant. Blood samples for serum chemistries are drawn, and the total calcium level is reported as 8.0 mg/dL

A nurse is caring for a newborn infant. Blood samples for serum chemistries are drawn, and the total calcium level is reported as 8.0 mg/dL. The nurse interprets this laboratory value as:
a- Lower than normal
b- Higher than normal
c- A normal value
d- Requiring physician notification.
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Blood calcium test:

What is the blood calcium test?
The blood calcium test measures the amount of calcium in the blood. Calcium is one of the most important minerals in the body. It is necessary for the health of bones and teeth. Calcium is also essential for the proper functioning of nerves, muscles and the heart. Approximately 99% of the body's calcium is stored in the bones. The remaining 1% circulates in the blood. An excessive or insufficient amount of calcium in the blood could be a sign of bone disease, thyroid disease, kidney disease or other medical problems.
Other names: total calcium, ionized calcium

For what do you use it?
There are two types of blood calcium tests:
- Total calcium: Measures calcium bound to specific blood proteins.
- Ionized calcium Measures "free" calcium, which is not bound to these proteins.
The total calcium test is usually part of a routine test called a basic metabolic panel. The basic metabolic panel measures the different minerals and other substances in the blood, including calcium.

Why do I need a blood calcium test?
Your doctor or health care professional may request a basic metabolic panel, which includes the blood calcium test, as part of a routine checkup or if you have symptoms of abnormal calcium levels.

Some of the symptoms of high calcium levels include:
- Nausea and vomiting.
- Urinate more frequently.
- Increased thirst.
- Constipation
- Abdominal pain.
- Lack of appetite.

Some of the symptoms of low calcium levels are:
- Tingling of the lips, tongue, fingers or feet.
- Muscle cramps.
- Muscle spasms.
- Irregular heartbeats.

Many people with high or low calcium levels have no symptoms. Your doctor or health care professional may ask for a calcium test if you have a pre-existing medical problem that could affect your calcium levels, for example:
- Kidney disease
- Thyroid disease
- Malnutrition
- Certain types of cancer

What happens during a blood calcium test?
A healthcare professional takes a blood sample from a vein in an arm with a small needle. After inserting the needle, draw a small amount of blood that you put in a test tube or vial. You may feel mild discomfort when the needle is inserted or removed, but the procedure usually takes less than five minutes.

Should I do something to prepare for the test?
The blood calcium test and the basic metabolic panel do not require any special preparation. If your doctor or healthcare professional has requested other tests with your blood sample, you may have to fast (not eat or drink) for several hours before the test. Your doctor or health professional will tell you if you should follow any special instructions.

Does this test have any risk?
The risks of a blood test are minimal. You may feel mild pain or a bruise will form where the needle is inserted, but most symptoms go away quickly.

What do the results mean?
If your results indicate higher than normal calcium levels, it could indicate:
- Hyperparathyroidism: Medical problem in which the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone
- Bone disease of Paget: Makes the bones become too large, weak and prone to fractures
- Excessive use of antacids containing calcium
Excessive calcium intake in vitamin D supplements or milk
- Certain types of cancer
If your results indicate lower than normal calcium levels, it could indicate:
- Hypoparathyroidism: Medical problem in which the parathyroid glands produce very little parathyroid hormone
- Vitamin D deficiency
- Magnesium deficiency
- Inflammation of the pancreas (pancreatitis)
- Kidney disease
If your calcium test results are not within normal limits, that does not necessarily mean that you have a medical problem that requires treatment. Other factors, such as diet and certain medications, can affect calcium levels. If you have questions about your results, check with your doctor or healthcare professional.

Should I know more about the blood calcium test?
The blood calcium test does not tell you how much calcium you have in the bones. Bone health can be measured with a type of x-ray called bone densitometry or DEXA exam. This test measures the mineral content, including calcium, and other bone characteristics.

The nurse prepares to administer which medication to the newborn by the intramuscular route

The nurse prepares to administer which medication to the newborn by the intramuscular route?
a- Tetracycline 1%
b- Erythromycin (0.5% Ilotycin)
c- Vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON)
d- Measles-mumps-rubella vaccination.
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What is vitamin K? What is it for?
Vitamin K is a nutrient that the body needs to be healthy. It is important for blood clotting and bone health, and for other body functions. If you are taking any anticoagulant, such as warfarin (Coumadin®), it is very important that you consume the same amount of vitamin K every day.

What foods are a source of vitamin K?
Vitamin K is naturally present in many foods. To obtain the recommended amounts of vitamin K, you have to consume a variety of foods, such as the following:
- Green leafy vegetables such as spinach, kale (or cabbage), broccoli and lettuce.
- Vegetable oils.
- Some fruits such as blueberries and figs.
- Meat, cheese, eggs and soybeans.

What types of vitamin K dietary supplements are there?
There are multivitamin / multimineral supplements with vitamin K. Vitamin K is found alone in vitamin K supplements, or in vitamin K supplements with other nutrients such as calcium, magnesium and / or vitamin D. Common presentations of vitamin K they are in the form of phylloquinone and phytomenadione (also known as vitamin K1), and menaquinone-4 and menaquinone-7 (also known as vitamin K2).

Do I get enough vitamin K?
Vitamin K deficiency is uncommon. In the United States, most people get enough vitamin K from the food they eat. In addition, bacteria in the colon make a certain amount of vitamin K that the body absorbs. However, some people may have difficulty getting enough vitamin K:
- Newborns who do not receive an injection of vitamin K at birth.
- People with certain disorders (such as cystic fibrosis, celiac disease, ulcerative colitis, short bowel syndrome) that decrease the amount of vitamin K that the body absorbs.
- People who have had bariatric surgery.

What happens if I don't get enough vitamin K?
Severe vitamin K deficiency can cause bruising (bleeding) and bleeding problems because blood clotting is slower. Vitamin K deficiency may reduce bone strength and increase the risk of osteoporosis since the body needs vitamin K for bone health.

What are some of the effects of vitamin K on health?
Scientists study vitamin K to determine how it affects health. Here are some examples of the results of these investigations:

Osteoporosis:
Vitamin K is important for healthy bones. Some research studies indicate that people who consume more foods rich in vitamin K have stronger bones and less likely to break their hips than people who consume less of these foods. A couple of studies have found that taking vitamin K supplements improves bone strength and the chances of breaking a bone, but other studies did not reach the same conclusion. More studies are needed to better determine if vitamin K supplements help improve bone health and reduce the risk of osteoporosis.

Coronary heart disease:
Scientists study whether low levels of vitamin K in the blood increase the risk of heart disease, possibly by making the blood vessels that travel to the heart become stiffer and narrower. More research is needed to understand if vitamin K supplements help prevent heart disease.

Can vitamin K be harmful?
Vitamin K has not been shown to cause any harm. However, it may interact with some medications, especially warfarin (Coumadin®). See the information below.

Are there interactions with vitamin K that I should know?
Yes, some medications may interact with vitamin K. Some examples are:

- Warfarin (Coumadin®):
Vitamin K could have a serious interaction with warfarin (Coumadin®), which is an anticoagulant. If you take warfarin, make sure that the amount of vitamin K you consume through food and supplements is the same every day. A sudden change in the amount of vitamin K ingested could cause dangerous bleeding (if you consume less) or blood clots (if you consume more).

- Antibiotics:
Antibiotics are capable of destroying the beneficial bacteria of the intestine. Some of these bacteria make vitamin K. Taking antibiotics for several weeks could reduce the amount of vitamin K made in the intestine and, therefore, the amount usable by the body.

Bile acid sequestrants:
Some people take medications known as "bile acid sequestrants" such as cholestyramine [Questran®] and colestipol [Colestid®]) to lower blood cholesterol levels. These medications reduce the amount of vitamin K absorbed by the body, especially when taken for many years.

Orlistat:
Orlistat (Alli® and Xenical®) is a weight loss medication. It reduces the amount of fat the body absorbs and can reduce the absorption of vitamin K.
Talk to your doctor, pharmacist and other health professionals about the dietary supplements and medications (prescription and non-prescription) you take. They will tell you if these dietary supplements could interact or interfere with your medications or if the medications could interfere with the way your body absorbs, uses or metabolizes nutrients such as vitamin K.

Vitamin K and healthy eating:
According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans of the federal government, people should get the most nutrients from food. Foods contain vitamins, minerals, dietary fibers and other substances beneficial to health. In some cases, consuming fortified foods and dietary supplements could provide nutrients that, otherwise, would not be consumed in the minimum recommended amounts. For more information on ways to maintain a healthy diet, see the Dietary Guidelines for Americanxternal link disclaimer and the food guidance system of the United States Department of Agriculture, MyPlate.external link disclaimer

Which of the following would be considered a normal finding in a newborn less than 12 hours old

Which of the following would be considered a normal finding in a newborn less than 12 hours old?
a) Grunting respirations
b) Heart rate of 190 beats/min
c) Bluish discoloration of the hands and feet
d) A yellow discoloration of the sclera and body.

Lequel des énoncés suivants serait considéré comme un résultat normal chez un nouveau-né âgé de moins de 12 heures?
a) Respiration grognements
b) Fréquence cardiaque de 190 battements / min
c) Décoloration bleuâtre des mains et des pieds
d) Une décoloration jaune de la sclère et du corps.

The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a large-for-gestational age (LGA) newborn infant. Which physical assessment technique would the nurse perform to assess for evidence of birth trauma

The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a large-for-gestational age (LGA) newborn infant. Which physical assessment technique would the nurse perform to assess for evidence of birth trauma?
a) Palpate the clavicles for a fracture.
b) Auscultate the heart for a cardiac defect.
c) Blanch the skin for evidence of jaundice.
d) Perform Ortolani's maneuver for hip dislocation.

A postpartum unit nurse is preparing to care for a client who has just delivered a healthy newborn infant. In the immediate postpartum period

A postpartum unit nurse is preparing to care for a client who has just delivered a healthy newborn infant. In the immediate postpartum period, the nurse plans to take the client's vital signs:
a) Every hour for the first 2 hours and then every 4 hours
b) Every 30 minutes during the first hour and then every hour for the next 2 hours
c) Every 5 minutes for the first 30 minutes and then every hour for the next 4 hours
d) Every 15 minutes during the first hour and then every 30 minutes for the next 2 hours.

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin sodium

A nurse is caring for a postpartum client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin sodium. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse specifically review to determine whether an effective and appropriate dose of heparin is being delivered?
a) Platelet count
b) Prothrombin time (PT)
c) International normalized ratio (INR)
d) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT).

An infant is born to a mother with hepatitis B.. Immune globulin (IG) given as soon as possible after delivery

An infant is born to a mother with hepatitis B. Which of the following prophylactic measures would be indicated for the infant?
a) Immune globulin (IG) given as soon as possible after delivery
b) Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) given within 14 days after birth
c) Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B vaccine given within 12 hours after birth
d) Hepatitis B vaccine given within 24 hours after birth.

A newborn infant is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux (GER).. Abdominal contents herniate through an opening of the diaphragm

A newborn infant is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux (GER), and the infant's mother asks the nurse to explain the diagnosis. The nurse plans to base the response on which of the following descriptions?
a) A portion of the stomach protrudes through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
b) Abdominal contents herniate through an opening of the diaphragm.
c) Gastric contents regurgitate back into the esophagus.
d) The esophagus terminates before it reaches the stomach.

A nurse is reviewing the record of a newborn infant in the nursery and notes that the physician has documented the presence of a cephalohematoma

A nurse is reviewing the record of a newborn infant in the nursery and notes that the physician has documented the presence of a cephalohematoma. Based on this documentation, the nurse expects to note which of the following on assessment of the infant?
a) Swelling of the soft tissues of the head and scalp
b) Edema resulting from bleeding below the periosteum of the cranium
c) A suture split greater than 1 cm
d) A hard, rigid, immobile suture line.