Showing posts with label Physiological Integrity. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Physiological Integrity. Show all posts

A child is found to have a mildly elevated serum lead level.. High in iron

A child is found to have a mildly elevated serum lead level. Because of this, nurse Alma instructs the parents in the need to provide the child with a diet that is:

  • A. High in iron
  • B. Low in calcium
  • C. High in fat
  • D. Low in fiber

The correct answer is D. Low in fiber.

Here's the reasoning:

- High in iron (A):

While iron deficiency can worsen lead absorption, increasing iron without specific need and without medical guidance is not recommended.

- Low in calcium (B):

Calcium helps decrease lead absorption in the body, so a healthy intake of calcium sources like dairy products and leafy vegetables is recommended, not necessarily a low intake.

- High in fat (C):

This wouldn't be a specific dietary recommendation related to lead levels.

- Low in fiber (D):

Fiber binds to lead in the digestive tract and helps its excretion, therefore reducing its absorption. This makes a low-fiber diet counterproductive in this case.

Therefore, based on the need to decrease lead absorption in the body, providing a diet low in fiber would be the least helpful. Nurse Alma's recommendation should focus on increasing calcium intake and potentially using specific binding agents if recommended by a healthcare professional.

Remember, it's important to consult with a healthcare professional for specific dietary recommendations in cases of elevated lead levels for children. They can assess the individual's needs and provide appropriate guidance.

A ten-year-old client has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia (SCA).. Increase fluid intake

A ten-year-old client has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia (SCA).

During discharge teaching, which of the following interventions does the nurse need to stress to the child and the family?
  • A. Increase fluid intake
  • B. Increase fat intake
  • C. Closely monitor bowel movements
  • D. Serve leafy green vegetable daily

The correct answer is A. Increase fluid intake.

Here's why:

- Increase fluid intake (A):

This is crucial for sickle cell anemia patients as dehydration can significantly increase the risk of pain crises and other complications. Aiming for 8-10 glasses of water a day is recommended.

- Increase fat intake (B):

While not necessarily harmful, increasing fat intake isn't specifically emphasized in managing SCA.

- Closely monitor bowel movements (C):

While constipation can be a concern, it's not a key intervention stressed for all SCA patients.

- Serve leafy green vegetables daily (D):

Eating a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables is important, but specifically highlighting leafy green vegetables daily isn't the main focus.

Therefore, A. Increase fluid intake is the most essential intervention for the nurse to emphasize during discharge teaching for a child with SCA. This will help prevent dehydration and related complications.

Remember, it's always best to consult with a healthcare professional for specific recommendations related to managing sickle cell anemia.

A school-age child with fever and joint pain has just received a diagnosis of rheumatic fever.. Early detection and treatment of streptococcal infections

A school-age child with fever and joint pain has just received a diagnosis of rheumatic fever.

The child’s parents ask the nurse whether anything could have prevented this disorder. Which intervention is most effective in preventing rheumatic fever?
  • a. Immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine.
  • b. Isolation of individuals with rheumatic fever.
  • c. Use of prophylactic antibiotics for invasive procedures.
  • d. Early detection and treatment of streptococcal infections.

Answer D.

Rheumatic fever is a systemic inflammatory disease that follows a Group A streptococcal infection. Therefore, early detection and treatment of streptococcal infections helps prevent the development of rheumatic fever.
Hepatitis B vaccine provides immunity against the hepatitis B virus - not streptococci. Because rheumatic fever isn’t contagious, isolation measures aren’t necessary. Prophylactic antibiotics are used for invasive procedures only in clients with a history of carditis to prevent bacterial endocarditis.

The most effective intervention in preventing rheumatic fever is d. Early detection and treatment of streptococcal infections.


Here's why:
  • Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can develop as a complication of untreated streptococcal throat infections, particularly those caused by group A Streptococcus (GAS) bacteria.
  • By promptly identifying and treating these infections with appropriate antibiotics, the risk of developing rheumatic fever significantly decreases.
  • While the other options listed may offer some benefits, they are not as effective as early and proper treatment of streptococcal infections in preventing rheumatic fever:

a. Immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine:

This vaccine protects against hepatitis B virus infection, which is unrelated to rheumatic fever.

b. Isolation of individuals with rheumatic fever:

While isolating individuals with rheumatic fever can help prevent the spread of GAS, it does not prevent the initial development of the disease.

c. Use of prophylactic antibiotics for invasive procedures:

This practice is mainly used to prevent infections like endocarditis after certain medical procedures, not to prevent rheumatic fever.

Therefore, emphasizing the importance of early and proper treatment of streptococcal infections is the most effective approach to preventing rheumatic fever in children.

To help establish a diagnosis of hemolytic transfusion reaction, the nurse should assess the client for.. Flank pain

A client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes following the start of the transfusion, nurse Marlyn notes the client is flushed, febrile, and having chills.

To help establish a diagnosis of hemolytic transfusion reaction, the nurse should assess the client for:
a- Headache
b- Anxiety
c- Urticaria
d- Flank pain

Answer D.

Flank pain and hematuria are classic manifestations of a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

As the kidneys work to excrete hemolyzed red blood cells, the client may progress to acute renal failure.
Other manifestations include headache, feelings of doom, tachycardia, and hypotension leading to shock.

Unless treated immediately, a hemolytic transfusion reaction will rapidly progress to coma and death.

Transfusion reactions are adverse events related to blood transfusions occurring in recipients.
They can go unnoticed or in the extreme being fatal.

They can occur during or within hours of transfusion (acute immediate reactions) or after several days or weeks (delayed reactions).

Their declaration is compulsory, and the evaluation of these undesirable effects in recipients is covered by the hemovigilance system which is regulations defined in France by law n ° 93-5 of January 4, 1993.
This makes it possible to define a level of severity (from 1 [not severe] to 4 [death]) and 5 levels of accountability (from 0 [exclusion] to 3 [certainty] with a non -assessable level).

Transfusion reactions can be immunological or non -immunological mechanisms and their diagnosis is sometimes difficult because there is no specific symptomatology.

The most frequent clinical signs are fever, chills, hives and pruritus.
Some disappear spontaneously or with symptomatic treatment.

However, others, such as hypotension, even a state of shock, hemoglo-binuria or respiratory distress, testify to a severe reaction.

Whether immediate or delayed, depending on their mechanism, the immunological, infectious or overload transfusion reactions are distinguished.

Epidemiology:
Some reactions are very frequent (minimal allergic reactions, non -hemolytic febrile reaction) while others are rarer (anaphylaxis, hemolytic or septic shock).

The incidence of adverse events in the receiver is estimated for 2016 at 216.2 per 100,000 transfused bloody products.

The first three diagnoses with a level of accountability of 1 to 3 declared are allo-immunization (85/100,000), non-hemolytic febrile reactions (56/100,000) and allergy (33/100,000).

Mortality is most often the fact of acute edema of the lung of overload, post-transfusion treble syndromes (Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury [Trali]), infectious shocks or a longer-term death linked to the transmission of infectious pathologies.

In 2016.2 Deaths were linked to 2 overload pulmonary edema, 2 allergies, and 1 bacterial infection transmitted by transfusion.

However, the prevention measures implemented for many years tend to reduce their occurrence more and more and in particular severe forms.

Immediate transfusion reactions:
Immunological causes:
Acute hemolysis:
It can be the result of an antigen-anticorps conflict leading to intravascular and/or intratuly destruction of the transfused red blood cell.

However, it should be noted that there are also non -immunological destruction of red blood cells transfused by mechanical, osmotic or thermal mechanisms.

The antibodies involved can be those of the ABO system (the most serious) or other HR, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, MNS, etc. systems, etc.

Clinical manisfests can be more or less noisy, ranging from a simple fever to hemolytic shock with lumbar pain, hemoglobinuria and discusminate intravascular coagulation.

The diagnosis is based on the highlighting of hemolysis stigmata (haptoglobin, lacticodeshydrogenase, bilirubin, etc.), awareness of hematies in vivo by the direct antiglobulin test (Direct Coombs test) and on identification of antibodies guilty by direct examination to antiglobulin.

Prevention is based on strict identity rules, respect for the compatibility of blood groups and on the performance of antibodies detection by the search for irregular agglutinins before transfusion.

Non -hemolytic feverish reaction:
It is most often linked to the injection of cytokines present in the products, in particular the platelets which relaar these mediators in the environment during their conservation.

It can also be the result of an antigen-antibody conflict in the HLA system generating the synthesis of cytokines.

This is a diagnosis of exclusion that must be retained after eliminating all other causes of fever.

A child with asthma is brought to the emergency room with audible wheezing and difficulty breathing.. Give epinephrine intramuscularly

A child with asthma is brought to the emergency room with audible wheezing and difficulty breathing.

The initial action by the nurse is to:

a. Give epinephrine intramuscularly

b. Place the child in a mist tent

c. Administer aminophylline intravenously

d. Provide oxygen via mask

Answer A.

The drug most frequently prescribed is epinephrine.
Epinephrine provides rapid bronchodilation that will increase the diameter of the airways and increase the flow of air through the bronchi.

Dr. Santos prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise

Dr. Santos prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise.
Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

a- Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals

b- Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly

c- You won’t need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide

d- Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn

Answer A.
The client should take glipizide twice a day, 30 minutes before a meal, because food decreases its absorption.
The drug doesn’t cause hyponatremia and therefore doesn’t necessitate monthly serum sodium measurement.
The client must continue to monitor the blood glucose level during glipizide therapy.

When obtaining the vital signs of a client with multiple traumatic injuries, the nurse detects bradycardia, bradypnea, and systolic hypertension.. Increased intracranial pressure

When obtaining the vital signs of a client with multiple traumatic injuries, the nurse detects bradycardia, bradypnea, and systolic hypertension.
Nurse Ashley must notify the physician immediately because these findings may reflect which complication?

a- Shock

b- Encephalitis

c- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

d- Status epilepticus

Answer C.
Decreased heart and respiratory rates and increased systolic blood pressure reflect Cushing’s triad, which may develop when ICP increases.
Shock typically causes tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension.
In encephalitis, the temperature rises and the heart and respiratory rates may increase from the effects of fever on the metabolic rate.
If the client doesn’t maintain adequate hydration, hypotension may occur.
Status epilepticus causes unceasing seizures, not changes in vital signs.

for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery

When preparing a client, age 50, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery.
What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?

a- Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture

b- Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix

c- The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client

d- Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage

Answer B.
A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage.
The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion.
Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture.
Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

A client undergoes hip-pinning surgery to treat an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. Nurse Andrew should include which intervention in the postoperative plan of care

A client undergoes hip-pinning surgery to treat an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. Nurse Andrew should include which intervention in the postoperative plan of care?
a. Performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the client’s legs once each shift
b. Keeping a pillow between the client’s legs at all times
c. Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours
d. Maintaining the client in semi-Fowler’s position

Answer B. After hip pinning, the client must keep the affected leg abducted at all times; placing a pillow between the legs reminds the client not to cross the legs and to keep the leg abducted.
Passive or active ROM exercises shouldn’t be performed on the affected leg during the postoperative period because this could damage the operative site and cause hip dislocation.
Most clients should be turned to the unaffected side, not from side to side.
After hip pinning, the client must avoid acute flexion of the affected hip to prevent possible hip dislocation; therefore, semi-Fowler’s position should be avoided.
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Surgery Overview:
For a hip fracture, operating is usually the best treatment. Three types of surgery can be performed.
- Hip repair (internal fixation). Hip repair involves stabilizing fractured bones with screws, nails, rods or surgical plates. This type of surgery is usually done in people who have fractures in which the bones can align correctly. This can also be called "implantation of nails in the hip".
- Partial hip arthroplasty (partial hip replacement surgery). In this surgery the upper part of the femur (the head of the hip joint) is replaced with artificial parts made of ceramic or metal. It does not replace the hip cavity.
- Total hip arthroplasty (total hip replacement surgery). In this surgery, all parts of the joint are replaced with artificial metal, ceramic or plastic parts.
Nail implant surgery to repair a hip fracture comprises two main steps:
- Reduction (get the bone to align correctly)
- Internal fixation (stabilize fractured bones)
During surgery to repair a hip fracture, your doctor will make one or two cuts (incisions) over the broken bone in the hip. The bone pieces are put back in the correct position, and fixed in place with pins, screws, nails, rods or metal plates. You may have x-rays to see if the pins and plates are in the right place. The doctor uses stitches or staples to close the incisions. The operation lasts 2 to 4 hours.
Doctors usually use general anesthesia for hip fracture operations, which means that you will be asleep during surgery. But sometimes they use regional anesthesia, which means that you cannot feel the area of ​​the operation and you will feel sleepy but you will be awake. The decision depends on your doctor, your general health and, to some extent, what you prefer.

What to expect after surgery:
Immediately after the operation of a hip fracture, medications will be given to control pain and, perhaps, medications to prevent the formation of blood clots. You may have a urinary catheter so you don't have to get out of bed to urinate. You may also have a compression pump or compression stocking on your leg, which squeezes your leg to keep blood flowing and to help prevent blood clots. And maybe you have a cushion placed between your legs to keep your hip in the right position. It is not unusual to have an upset stomach or feel constipated, so talk to your doctor or nurse if you do not feel well.
Your doctor can teach you to do simple breathing exercises to help prevent lung congestion while your activity level is reduced. You can also learn to move your feet up and down to flex your muscles and keep the blood circulating. And you can start learning to keep your hip in the right position when you move in bed and get out of bed.

Displacement:
It is very important to start moving shortly after the operation. This will speed recovery and reduce complications.
In general, most people get out of bed with help the day of the operation or the next day. Most likely they move him to a chair for a short time. During the following days, you are likely to start doing light exercises and learn to walk with a walker or crutches.
It is likely to remain in the hospital about 2 to 7 days after the operation. They could transfer you to a long-term care facility for rehabilitation before returning home. During rehabilitation, you can get help with daily activities, such as bathing while sitting on a sidewalk. You probably need a walking aid - a walker, a cane or crutches - for several months. And a full recovery can take up to a year.

After the hip operation:
There are many issues to consider after hip surgery. Older adults often need extensive care, including physical therapy and help with cooking, taking medication and personal care. Medications that reduce the risk of blood clot formation and stroke, pulmonary embolism or associated thrombophlebitis are prescribed.
After a hip fracture surgery, your doctor will encourage you to participate in a rehabilitation program. Following a rehabilitation program is very important, because it will speed up your recovery and allow you to return to your daily activities sooner.

Why it is done:
The operation is performed to keep the broken parts of the hip in place so that they can heal faster. Some kinds of fractured bones heal on their own with a cast. However, a fractured hip is not likely to heal well without surgery.

Effectiveness:
The surgery usually works well, but you will have to be patient. Recovering probably takes a long time. And you may never move as well as before.
Surgery is usually the best option after a hip fracture, because it stabilizes the bone so you can move sooner.note1 This helps prevent other problems such as pressure injuries and weakness. Surgery also increases the likelihood that the bone will remain in place so that the fractured leg is not a little shorter than the other after healing.

Risks:
The risks of hip repair surgery can be divided into two groups:

+ Risks of surgery and recovery period, such as:
- Bleeding
- Infection
- Blood clots.
- Delayed wound healing.
- Problems with anesthesia.

+ Long-term risks that may occur, or that may be noticed, between months and years after the operation. Some of these problems can happen with or without surgery, but they are more likely to occur if you don't have surgery. These include:
- Pseudoarthrosis (lack of consolidation). This means that the parts of the bone do not heal together again.
- Fracture around the screws, nails or rods used to repair the bone.
- Difference in leg length. This means that when the fractured leg heals, it is a little shorter than the other leg.
- Problems with the circulation of blood inside the bone, which can cause part of the bone to die (osteonecrosis).

To think:
Reduction (getting the bone aligned correctly) and internal fixation (stabilizing broken bones) are often done in young and active people. Hip arthroplasty is usually done in older adults who do less activity. A long-term study compared older adults who had a hip replacement with others who had their hip repaired. Those who underwent a hip replacement might be more active and less likely to need surgery again. Note2 When deciding which of these methods to use to repair a hip fracture, your surgeon will consider the type of fracture, your age and activity level, and also the possible advantages and disadvantages.

After a complete physical examination, blood studies, and a pelvic examination with a Papanicolaou test, the physician diagnoses stage IV ovarian cancer.. Major surgery

On a visit to the gynecologist, a client complains of urinary frequency, pelvic discomfort, and weight loss. After a complete physical examination, blood studies, and a pelvic examination with a Papanicolaou test, the physician diagnoses stage IV ovarian cancer. Nurse Ruth expects to prepare the client for which initial treatment?
a. Radiation therapy
b. Major surgery
c. Chemotherapy
d. None (At this advanced stage, ovarian cancer isn’t treatable.)

Answer B. Ovarian cancer usually requires aggressive treatment - initially, surgery. The client will require a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with tumor resection, omentectomy, appendectomy, and lymphadenectomy.
Radiation therapy is palliative for a client in this advanced stage of the disease.
Chemotherapy also is largely palliative during this stage; however, prolonged remissions have been achieved in some clients.

An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals myocardial ischemia and an anterior-wall myocardial infarction (MI).. Elevated ST segment

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals myocardial ischemia and an anterior-wall myocardial infarction (MI). Which ECG characteristic indicates myocardial ischemia?
a. Prolonged PR interval
b. Absent Q wave
c. Elevated ST segment
d. Widened QRS complex

Answer C. Ischemic myocardial tissue changes cause elevation of the ST segment, a peaked or inverted T wave, and a pathological Q wave.
A prolonged PR interval occurs with first-degree heart block, the least dangerous atrioventricular heart block; this disorder may arise in healthy people but sometimes results from drug toxicity, electrolyte or metabolic disturbances, rheumatic fever, or chronic degenerative disease of the conduction system.
An absent Q wave is normal; an MI may cause a significant Q wave.
A widened QRS complex indicates a conduction delay in the His-Purkinje system.

Nurse Rhea is teaching a client how to irrigate his stoma. Which action indicates that the client needs more teaching.. Hanging the irrigation bag 24″ to 36″ (60 to 90 cm) above the stoma

Nurse Rhea is teaching a client how to irrigate his stoma. Which action indicates that the client needs more teaching?
a. Hanging the irrigation bag 24″ to 36″ (60 to 90 cm) above the stoma
b. Filling the irrigation bag with 500 to 1,000 ml of lukewarm water
c. Stopping irrigation for cramps and clamping the tubing until cramps pass
d. Washing hands with soap and water when finished

Answer A. An irrigation bag should be elevated 18″ to 24″ (40 to 60 cm) above the stoma. Typically, adults use 500 to 1,000 ml of water at a temperature no higher than 105° F (41° C) to irrigate a colostomy.
If cramping occurs during irrigation, irrigation should be stopped and the client should take deep breaths until the cramping stops.
Irrigation can then be resumed.
Hand washing reduces the spread of microorganisms.

A client on long-term mechanical ventilation becomes very frustrated when he tries to communicate

A client on long-term mechanical ventilation becomes very frustrated when he tries to communicate. Which of the following interventions should nurse Anne perform to assist the client?
a. Assure the client that everything will be all right and that he shouldn’t become upset
b. Ask a family member to interpret what the client is trying to communicate
c. Ask the physician to wean the client off the mechanical ventilator to allow the client to talk
d. Ask the client to write, use a picture board, or spell words with an alphabet board

Answer D. If the client uses an alternative method of communication, he’ll feel more in control and be less frustrated.
Assuring the client that everything will be all right offers false reassurance and telling him not to be upset minimizes his feelings.
Neither of these methods helps the client to communicate.
In a client with an endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube, the family members are also likely to encounter difficulty interpreting the client’s wishes. Making them responsible for interpreting the client’s gestures may frustrate the family.
The client may be weaned off a mechanical ventilator only when the physiologic parameters for weaning have been met.

Two weeks ago, a client underwent repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Now she has several postoperative complications

Two weeks ago, a client underwent repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Now she has several postoperative complications, including wound infection and failure to wean from the ventilator. While suctioning the client, the nurse notes that her sputum is copious, foul-smelling, and green-tinged and sends a specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. When the test results indicate a Pseudomonas aeruginosa, infection, Dr. Gutierrez prescribes gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin), 80 mg I.V. every 8 hours. Nurse Paul should infuse this drug over at least:
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes

Answer D. The nurse should infuse gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) I.V. over at least 30 minutes. Infusing the drug more rapidly may increase the client’s risk of adverse reactions.

After a plane crash, a client is brought to the emergency department with severe burns and respiratory difficulty. The nurse helps to secure a patent airway and attends to the client’s immediate needs

After a plane crash, a client is brought to the emergency department with severe burns and respiratory difficulty. The nurse helps to secure a patent airway and attends to the client’s immediate needs, then prepares to perform a neurologic assessment. Because the client is unstable and in critical condition, this examination must be brief but should include:
a. Evaluation of the corneal reflex response
b. Examination of the fundus of the eye
c. Assessment of the client’s gait
d. Evaluation of bowel and bladder functions

Answer A. During an acute crisis, the examiner checks the corneal reflex response to rapidly assess brain stem function.
Other components of the brief initial neurologic assessment usually include level of consciousness, pupillary response, and motor response in all arms and legs.
If appropriate and if time permits, the nurse also may assess sensory responses of the arms and legs.
Emergency assessment doesn’t include fundus examination unless the client has sustained direct eye trauma.
The client shouldn’t be moved unnecessarily until the extent of injuries is known, making gait evaluation impossible.
Bowel and bladder functions aren’t vital, so the nurse should delay their assessment.

Dr. Samson prescribes didanosine (ddI [Videx]), 200 mg P.O. every 12 hours, for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is intolerant to zidovudine (azidothymidine, AZT [Retrovir]).. Peripheral neuropathy

Dr. Samson prescribes didanosine (ddI [Videx]), 200 mg P.O. every 12 hours, for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is intolerant to zidovudine (azidothymidine, AZT [Retrovir]). Which condition in the client’s history warrants cautious use of this drug?
a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Hypertension
d. Asthma

Answer A. A history of peripheral neuropathy, renal or hepatic impairment, hyperuricemia, or pancreatitis warrants cautious use of didanosine because these disorders increase the risk of adverse effects.
Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and asthma aren’t significant history findings for a client who is to receive didanosine.

When administering spironolactone (Aldactone) to a client who has had a unilateral adrenalectomyollowing possible adverse effects of the drug.. Menstrual irregularities

When administering spironolactone (Aldactone) to a client who has had a unilateral adrenalectomy, nurse Walter should instruct the client about which of the following possible adverse effects of the drug?
a. Breast tenderness
b. Menstrual irregularities
c. Increased facial hair
d. Hair loss

Answer B. Spironolactone can cause menstrual irregularities and decreased libido.
Men may also experience gynecomastia and impotence.
Breast tenderness, increased facial hair, and hair loss aren’t associated with spironolactone.

A client received burns to his entire back and left arm. Using the Rule of Nines, nurse Sam can calculate that he has sustained burns on what percentage of his body

A client received burns to his entire back and left arm. Using the Rule of Nines, nurse Sam can calculate that he has sustained burns on what percentage of his body?
a. 9%
b. 18%
c. 27%
d. 36%

Answer C. According to the Rule of Nines, the posterior trunk, anterior trunk, and legs each make up 18% of the total body surface.
The head, neck, and arms each make up 9% of total body surface, and the perineum makes up 1%.
In this case, the client received burns to his back (18%) and one arm (9%), totaling 27% of his body.

Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results.. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m

Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which he receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Lester should expect the dose’s:
a. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
b. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
c. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
d. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Answer C. Regular insulin, which is a short-acting insulin, has an onset of 15 to 30 minutes and a peak of 2 to 4 hours.
Because the nurse gave the insulin at 2 p.m., the expected onset would be from 2:15 p.m. to 2:30 p.m. and the peak from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m.

Nurse Lovy is providing home care instructions to a client who has recently had a skin graft.. Protect the graft from direct sunlight

Nurse Lovy is providing home care instructions to a client who has recently had a skin graft. It’s most important that the client remember to:
a. Use cosmetic camouflage techniques.
b. Protect the graft from direct sunlight
c. Continue physical therapy
d. Apply lubricating lotion to the graft site

Answer B. To avoid burning and sloughing, the client must protect the graft from direct sunlight.
The other three interventions are helpful to the client and his recovery but are less important.