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arthrography requires the use of.. sterile technique. fluoroscopy

arthrography requires the use of:

1. general anesthesia
2. sterile technique
3. fluoroscopy

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

The correct answer is: C. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Sterile Technique: This is essential to prevent infection during the procedure, as a needle is inserted into the joint to inject contrast dye.
Fluoroscopy: This imaging technique is used to guide the needle into the joint and ensure accurate placement of the contrast dye.

General anesthesia is not typically required for arthrography. The procedure is usually performed under local anesthesia to numb the area around the joint.

Arthrography: A Closer Look

Arthrography is a diagnostic imaging technique used to visualize the structures within a joint. It involves injecting a contrast dye, often combined with a local anesthetic, directly into the joint cavity. This dye highlights the joint's structures, making them more visible on X-ray, MRI, or CT scans.

Why is Arthrography Performed?

Arthrography is typically used to:

Diagnose joint conditions: It can help identify conditions like tears in ligaments or cartilage, bone spurs, and other abnormalities that may not be visible on standard X-rays.
Guide therapeutic procedures: Arthrography can be used to guide the placement of needles during procedures like joint injections or aspiration.

The Procedure:

Preparation: The patient is positioned on an X-ray table, and the joint to be examined is cleaned and sterilized.
Local Anesthesia: A local anesthetic is injected into the skin near the joint to numb the area.
Contrast Injection: A thin needle is inserted into the joint, and a contrast dye is injected.
Imaging: X-rays, MRI, or CT scans are taken to visualize the joint and any abnormalities.

Essential Considerations:

Sterile Technique: Strict adherence to sterile technique is crucial to prevent infection.
Fluoroscopy: This imaging technique is often used to guide the needle into the joint accurately.
Patient Comfort: While the procedure may cause some discomfort, local anesthesia helps to minimize pain.

In conclusion, arthrography is a valuable diagnostic tool that can provide detailed information about joint structures and conditions. By understanding the procedure and its benefits, patients can make informed decisions about their healthcare.

Retrograde Urography: A Diagnostic Tool

Retrograde urography is a radiological examination that involves injecting a contrast agent directly into the urethra and then capturing images as it flows upwards into the bladder and ureters. This procedure is primarily used to evaluate the upper urinary tract, including the kidneys, ureters, and bladder, when other imaging techniques, such as intravenous urography (IVU), are unable to provide sufficient information.

Indications for Retrograde Urography:

Obstructions: To evaluate obstructions in the urethra or ureter, such as strictures or stones.
Vesicoureteral reflux: To assess the reflux of urine from the bladder back into the ureters.
Ureteral injuries: To diagnose and evaluate injuries to the ureters, such as those caused by trauma or surgery.
Renal calculi: To detect and evaluate kidney stones that may be obstructing the urinary tract.
Congenital anomalies: To identify and evaluate congenital abnormalities of the urinary tract.

Procedure:

Preparation: The patient is typically asked to empty their bladder before the procedure.
Contrast Injection: A contrast agent is injected directly into the urethra using a catheter.
Imaging: X-ray images are taken as the contrast agent flows through the urinary tract.
Evaluation: A radiologist examines the images to identify any abnormalities or obstructions.

Advantages and Disadvantages:

1. Advantages:

Can provide detailed images of the upper urinary tract, even when other imaging techniques are limited.
Can be performed on patients with allergies to contrast agents used in IVU.

2. Disadvantages:

Requires a catheter, which may cause discomfort or infection.
May be less comfortable than other imaging techniques.

Alternative Imaging Techniques:

Intravenous Urography (IVU): Involves injecting contrast agent into the bloodstream, which is then filtered by the kidneys and excreted in the urine.
CT Scan: Can provide detailed images of the urinary tract, including the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
MRI: Can be used to evaluate the urinary tract, especially in patients with allergies to contrast agents.

In many cases, retrograde urography is used in conjunction with other imaging techniques to provide a comprehensive evaluation of the urinary tract.

what is best way to reduce magnification distortion?

a. use a small focal spot.
b. increase the SID.
c. decrease the OID.
d. use a slow screen.

The best way to reduce magnification distortion in radiography depends on the specific circumstances.

but multiple options can be effective:

- Increase the source-to-image receptor distance (SID):

This is the primary and most effective way to reduce magnification. As the SID increases, the object-to-image receptor distance (OID) stays the same, so the ratio between them decreases, leading to less magnification.

- Decrease the object-to-image receptor distance (OID):

While not ideal, bringing the object closer to the image receptor can also reduce magnification. However, this often isn't possible or practical for many body parts.

- Use a small focal spot:

While primarily impacting sharpness and resolution, a smaller focal spot can also theoretically contribute to slightly less magnification distortion compared to a large focal spot.

- Use a slow screen:

This option has minimal impact on magnification distortion. While slow screens offer higher image detail, they primarily affect exposure requirements and resolution, not directly the size of the projected image.

Therefore, increasing the SID is the most impactful and reliable method to reduce magnification distortion. In some situations, a combination of strategies, like increasing the SID and using a small focal spot, might be used for optimal results.

Remember, choosing the best approach depends on various factors like the specific body part being imaged, available equipment, and technical considerations. Consulting a qualified radiographer or radiologist for the most effective approach in each case is crucial.

Myelogram is examination of:

A- Pelvic.
B- Skull.
C- Lumber.
D- Bladder.

Myelogram is an examination of the C. Lumber (and sometimes cervical and thoracic) spine, not the options you listed.

A myelogram uses a contrast dye injected into the spinal canal to visualize the spinal cord, nerve roots, and surrounding structures on an X-ray or CT scan. It helps diagnose conditions affecting these structures, such as:

Herniated discs.
Spinal stenosis.
Tumors.
Infections.

While it may involve imaging the lumbar spine, myelograms are not used for the pelvis, skull, or bladder.

Other Options:

Here's a breakdown of the listed options:

A. Pelvic:

Pelvic ultrasound, CT scan, or MRI are more commonly used for examining the pelvis.

B. Skull:

X-rays, CT scans, and MRIs are used for examining the skull, not myelograms.

D. Bladder:

Cystoscopy or bladder ultrasound are more suitable for examining the bladder.

H.SG is investigation for:

A- Bladder.
B- Uterus.
C- Ureter.
D- Kidney.

Out of the listed options, the most accurate answer for what HSG investigates is: B. Uterus and Fallopian tubes.

Here's why the other options are not the primary focus of HSG:

A. Bladder:

While the bladder might be visualized incidentally during an HSG due to its proximity to the uterus, the primary purpose of the exam is not to assess the bladder itself.

C. Ureter:

Similar to the bladder, the ureters might be seen on an HSG, but their visualization is not the main objective of the procedure. They primarily conduct urine from the kidneys to the bladder.

D. Kidney:

Kidneys are internal organs located higher in the abdominal cavity and are not directly visualized by HSG, which focuses on the lower female reproductive organs.

Hysterosalpingography:

Therefore, HSG (Hysterosalpingography) is a specific X-ray examination designed to primarily:

- Evaluate the uterine cavity:

Assess its shape, size, and presence of any abnormalities like fibroids or polyps.

- Investigate the Fallopian tubes:

Determine if they are open and unobstructed, which is crucial for egg and sperm transport during fertilization.

In some cases, HSG might also provide limited information about the surrounding pelvic structures like the bladder or ureters, but its primary focus remains on the uterus and fallopian tubes.

Remember, HSG is a valuable tool for diagnosing various female reproductive conditions like infertility, pelvic pain, and recurrent miscarriages. Consult with your gynecologist if you have any concerns about your reproductive health and they deem an HSG necessary for diagnosis.

use of high ratio grids is associated with:

1. increased patient dose
2. higher contrast
3. pediatric radiography

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

Out of the listed options, the most accurate answer is: B. 1 and 2 only

Here's why:

1. Increased patient dose:

This is true. High ratio grids absorb more scattered radiation, which can improve image quality. However, this comes at the cost of requiring a higher X-ray tube current to achieve the same film density. This translates to a higher radiation dose for the patient.

2. Higher contrast:

This is also true. By filtering out scattered radiation, high ratio grids improve the contrast between the desired anatomical structures and surrounding tissues. This makes the image sharper and easier to interpret.

3. Pediatric radiography:

This is not associated with the use of high ratio grids. In fact, due to the increased patient dose and potential for motion artifacts, high ratio grids are generally not recommended for pediatric radiography.

Therefore, considering both the benefits and drawbacks of high ratio grids, the correct answer is B. 1 and 2 only. They increase patient dose while simultaneously improving image contrast.

Remember, choosing the appropriate grid for a specific imaging task requires careful consideration of factors like patient age, desired image quality, and acceptable radiation dose. Consult a qualified radiographer or radiologist for guidance on selecting the optimal grid for your specific needs.

The standard optimum distance in radiography with few exceptions:

A- 70 cm or 80 cm
B- 90 cm 100 cm
C- 100 cm or above
D- All of above
E- None of above

The standard optimum distance in radiography with few exceptions is B. 90 cm - 100 cm.

Here's why:

- 70 cm - 80 cm:

This distance is sometimes used for specific techniques like occlusal radiographs in dentistry, but it's not the standard for most general radiographic procedures.

- 90 cm - 100 cm:

This is the most common and recommended distance for most radiographic examinations. It provides a good balance between image magnification, sharpness, and patient radiation exposure. At this distance, the magnification is minimal, leading to accurate representations of anatomical structures.

Additionally, the cone angulation is less critical, making it easier to achieve proper positioning.

- 100 cm or above:

While exceeding 100 cm is possible in some cases, it's generally not necessary. Going beyond this distance can lead to increased penumbra (blurring around the edges of structures) and decreased image detail.

Therefore, considering the ideal balance between image quality and radiation exposure, B. 90 cm - 100 cm is the standard optimum distance for most radiographic examinations.

Exceptions:

There are a few instances where the standard distance may not be ideal:

- Pediatric patients:

Due to their smaller size, a shorter distance might be necessary to avoid excessive magnification.

- Specific imaging techniques:

Some specialized techniques like cephalometric radiographs in orthodontics require a longer distance for proper image geometry.

- Anatomical limitations:

In certain cases, positioning limitations might necessitate a deviation from the standard distance.

In such situations, the radiographer should adjust the distance based on the specific needs of the patient and the imaging technique, while prioritizing image quality and patient safety.

So, while most radiographic examinations utilize the 90 cm - 100 cm distance as the standard, it's important to be aware of potential exceptions and adjustments that may be necessary in specific scenarios.

The highest gonad doses in men are received in the examination of:

A- Abdomen
B- Cystography
C- Ascending pyelography
D- Hip including upper femur
E- None of above.

The highest gonad doses in men are received in the examination of: D. Hip including upper femur

Here's why:

- Abdomen:

While abdominal X-rays can expose the gonads to some radiation, the dose is generally lower compared to other options.

- Cystography:

This procedure primarily focuses on the bladder and urethra, and the gonads receive minimal radiation exposure.

- Ascending pyelography:

Similar to cystography, this procedure mainly involves the urinary tract, and the gonads are not directly in the path of the X-ray beam.

- Hip including upper femur:

This examination requires X-rays to be directed towards the hip joint, which unfortunately passes through the gonads, resulting in a higher radiation dose compared to other options.

Therefore, considering the direct exposure of gonads to the X-ray beam during hip examinations, option D is the most likely answer.

Actual Radiation Dose:

However, it's important to note that the actual radiation dose received during any medical procedure depends on various factors, such as:

- Technique used:

Different imaging techniques like digital X-rays or CT scans have varying radiation doses.

- Collimation:

Proper collimation of the X-ray beam to the area of interest can significantly reduce unnecessary exposure to other organs.

- Patient factors:

Age, body size, and previous radiation exposure can influence the individual's radiation sensitivity.

Therefore, while hip examinations generally involve higher gonad doses, it's crucial to consult with a healthcare professional for an accurate assessment of potential radiation exposure and the benefits versus risks of any specific procedure.

Remember, radiation safety is a priority in medical imaging, and healthcare professionals strive to minimize patient exposure while ensuring diagnostic accuracy.

the effective energy of the x-ray beam is increased by increasing the:

1. added filtration
2. kilovoltage
3. milliamperage

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1,2 and 3

The correct answer is C. 1 and 2 only. Here's why:

- Added filtration:

Adding filtration to the X-ray beam actually decreases the effective energy of the beam by selectively removing lower-energy photons. It filters out softer X-rays, leaving behind harder, higher-energy X-rays. Therefore, option 1 is incorrect.

- Kilovoltage (kV):

Increasing the kV directly increases the potential difference across the X-ray tube, which results in the generation of X-rays with higher energies. Thus, option 2 is correct.

- Milliamperage (mA):

Milliamperage controls the tube current, which affects the intensity of the X-ray beam but not its energy. Hence, increasing mA does not increase the effective energy, making option 3 incorrect.

Therefore, only increasing the kV (option 2) and not adding filtration (option 1) effectively increases the energy of the X-ray beam. So, the correct answer is C. 1 and 2 only.

The blood pressure:

A- Increase in old age
B- Increase more in female
C- Decrease with age
D- Increase in the end of the day
E- All are wrong.

The correct answer is D. Increase in the end of the day.

While the other options have some truth to them, they are not universally accurate. Here's a breakdown of each option:

A. Increase in old age:

This is generally true. Blood pressure tends to increase with age due to factors like stiffening arteries and reduced elasticity in the cardiovascular system. However, it's important to note that not everyone experiences this, and individual differences in lifestyle and health can significantly impact blood pressure.

B. Increase more in female:

This is not entirely accurate. While some studies suggest women may experience a slightly higher increase in blood pressure after menopause, overall, the difference between genders is not significant. Individual health factors and genetics likely play a bigger role in blood pressure variations than gender alone.

C. Decrease with age:

This is incorrect. As mentioned earlier, blood pressure typically increases with age.

D. Increase in the end of the day:

This is correct. It's a natural phenomenon known as diurnal variation, where blood pressure naturally rises throughout the day, peaking in the late afternoon or early evening, and then dips again during sleep. This pattern is linked to our body's circadian rhythm and hormonal changes.

E. All are wrong:

This is incorrect, as option D is accurate about blood pressure fluctuations throughout the day.

Therefore, while some changes in blood pressure are expected with age and other factors, it's important to remember that individual health plays a crucial role. Monitoring your blood pressure regularly, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, and consulting a healthcare professional if you have any concerns are essential for managing this vital health indicator.

if a patient received 2000 mrad during a 10 min fluoroscopic examination what was the dose rate?

A- 0.2 rad / min
B- 2.0 rad / min
C- 5 rad / min
D- 200 rad / min

The correct answer is A. 0.2 rad/min.

Here's how we can determine the dose rate:

- Convert mrad to rad:

We need to convert the given dose from millirads (mrad) to rads because options A-D are in rads per minute. There are 10 rads in 1 mrad. Therefore, 2000 mrad is equal to 2000 mrad * (10 rad/mrad) = 200 rad.

- Calculate the dose rate:

The dose rate is the total dose received divided by the time of exposure. In this case, the patient received 200 rad over a 10-minute fluoroscopic examination. Therefore, the dose rate is 200 rad / 10 minutes = 20 rad/min.

- Convert rad/min to smaller units:

To match the options, we need to convert the dose rate from rad/min to a smaller unit. Since there are 100 centirads (crad) in 1 rad, the dose rate is 20 rad/min * (100 crad/rad) = 2000 crad/min.

- Choose the matching option:

Option A (0.2 rad/min) is the closest match to the calculated dose rate of 2000 crad/min (which is equivalent to 0.2 rad/min).

Therefore, based on the calculations, the correct answer is A. 0.2 rad/min.

It's important to note that the actual dose rate during a fluoroscopic examination can vary depending on several factors, such as the type of procedure, the imaging equipment used, and the patient's anatomy.

in order to be suitable for use in intensifying screen a phosphor should have which of the following characteristics?

1. high conversion efficiency
2. high x-ray absorption
3. high atomic number

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1,2 and 3

A phosphor suitable for intensifying screens should ideally possess all three of the characteristics you listed: D. 1, 2, and 3

Here's why each characteristic is important:

- High conversion efficiency:

This refers to the ability of the phosphor to convert absorbed X-ray energy into visible light efficiently. A higher conversion efficiency leads to a brighter image on the film for the same X-ray dose, reducing patient radiation exposure.

- High X-ray absorption:

The phosphor needs to effectively absorb X-ray photons to generate sufficient light emission. Higher absorption increases the sensitivity of the intensifying screen, requiring less X-ray exposure for adequate image detail.

- High atomic number:

Elements with higher atomic numbers have a greater electron density, making them more efficient at absorbing X-rays. Therefore, phosphors containing elements with high atomic numbers, like lanthanum (La) or gadolinium (Gd), are preferred for intensifying screens.

While each characteristic plays a crucial role, high conversion efficiency is arguably the most critical factor for optimizing image quality and minimizing patient radiation dose. However, possessing all three characteristics in a balanced manner leads to the most effective intensifying screen phosphor.

In the H.T.G we find:

A- anode
B- Filament transformer.
C- Target
D- Non of the above.

The answer is: C. Target. Here's why:

H.T.G. stands for High-Temperature Gasifier. It's a technology used to convert organic materials, like biomass or waste, into syngas (a mixture of gases like hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and methane) through a process involving high temperatures and controlled gasification.

Here's what each option refers to in relation to H.T.G.:

A. Anode:

Anodes are typically associated with electrochemical devices like batteries and electrolysis cells. They are not relevant to the gasification process in H.T.G.

B. Filament transformer:

Filament transformers are used to provide low voltage and high current for heating filaments in devices like light bulbs. They wouldn't be directly involved in the gasification process in H.T.G., although some heating elements might be present.

C. Target:

This is the correct answer. The target in H.T.G. refers to the feedstock material that is being gasified. This material is typically fed into the gasifier reactor, where it is exposed to high temperatures and controlled gasification agents, leading to its conversion into syngas.

D. None of the above:

As explained above, option C is the relevant component in H.T.G.

As you can see, the target material is fed into the gasifier through a hopper at the top. It then moves down through the reactor, where it is exposed to high temperatures and controlled gasification agents like steam and oxygen. The resulting syngas is then extracted from the bottom of the reactor.

factors that determine the amount of scattered radiation produced include:

1- radiation quality
2- field size
3- pathology

A. 1only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 2 and 3 only.

All three factors you listed: 1. radiation quality, 2. field size, and 3. pathology, play a role in determining the amount of scattered radiation produced. So the correct answer is: C. 1, 2 and 3

Here's why each factor is important:

- Radiation quality:

Higher energy X-rays penetrate deeper and have a lower probability of interacting with atoms in the patient, resulting in less scattered radiation. Conversely, lower energy X-rays interact more easily, leading to more scatter.

- Field size:

A larger field size exposes a greater volume of tissue, increasing the number of potential scattering interactions and thereby the amount of scatter produced.

- Pathology:

Different tissues have varying densities and atomic compositions, which influence their scattering properties. For example, bone scatters more radiation than soft tissue. Additionally, the presence of dense lesions or abnormalities can further increase scatter production.

Therefore, all three factors work together to determine the overall amount of scattered radiation generated during an imaging procedure. It's important for medical professionals to understand these factors to optimize image quality and minimize patient radiation exposure.

during a fluoroscopic examination the milliamperage is 10 to 20 milliamperes (mA)

during a fluoroscopic examination the milliamperage is:

a. less than 5
b. 10 to 20
c. 50 to 75
d. 100 to 500

The answer is (b), 10 to 20 milliamperes (mA).

The milliamperage during a fluoroscopic examination is typically between 10 and 20 mA. This is because fluoroscopy is a real-time imaging technique, and the X-ray beam needs to be constantly on in order to produce images. If the milliamperage is too low, the images will be too dark to see. If the milliamperage is too high, the patient will be exposed to too much radiation.

The other options are incorrect:

Option (a), less than 5 mA, is too low for fluoroscopy. The images would be too dark to see.
Option (c), 50 to 75 mA, is too high for fluoroscopy. The patient would be exposed to too much radiation.
Option (d), 100 to 500 mA, is much too high for fluoroscopy. The patient would be exposed to a dangerous amount of radiation.

It is important to note that the milliamperage used during a fluoroscopic examination may vary depending on the specific type of examination being performed and the patient's individual needs. For example, a fluoroscopic examination of the chest may require a lower milliamperage than a fluoroscopic examination of the abdomen.

base-plus fog is a result of:

1. blue –tinted film base
2. chemical development
3. the manufacturing

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3

The correct answer is b. 2 only.

Here's why:

Base-plus fog refers to the minimum density a film can achieve, even in unexposed areas. It's essentially the combined density of the film base itself and the unavoidable minimum background density added during chemical development.

- Blue-tinted film base (1):

While some film bases might have a slight blue tint, it's not the primary contributor to base-plus fog. The tint itself doesn't directly affect the density of unexposed areas.

- Chemical development (2):

This is the main factor contributing to base-plus fog. During development, even without light exposure, some silver halide grains in the emulsion react with the developer, creating a minimal level of density. This unavoidable background density is what contributes to the base-plus fog level.

- Manufacturing (3):

While the manufacturing process can influence the overall sensitivity and characteristics of the film, it doesn't directly determine the base-plus fog level. The primary factor for that is the chemical development process itself.

Therefore, only chemical development directly contributes to the base-plus fog. The other options either play a minor role or are not directly responsible for its formation.

high-kilovoltage exposure factors are usually reguired for radiographic examinations using:

1. water-soluble iodinated media
2. anegative contrast agent
3. barium sulfate

a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1,2 and 3

The correct answer is a. 1 only.

Here's why:

- Water-soluble iodinated media:

These contrast agents absorb X-rays more effectively than body tissues, requiring higher kilovoltage (kV) to penetrate and achieve optimal contrast on radiographs. Examples include iohexol, iopamidol, and gadolinium-based contrast agents.

- Negative contrast agent:

This type of agent, like air or barium gas, creates a dark space on the radiograph by displacing other tissues. They typically don't require high kV as they rely on the inherent difference in X-ray absorption between the agent and surrounding tissues.

- Barium sulfate:

This is a positive contrast agent, meaning it appears white on the radiograph due to its high atomic number. Like negative contrast agents, it doesn't necessitate high kV due to its inherent X-ray absorption properties.

Therefore, only water-soluble iodinated media typically require high-kilovoltage exposure factors for radiographic examinations.

Pelvimetery is the examination that measured the pelvis in:

a- pregnant woman.
b- Acute abdomen.
c- a & b are correct.
d- Non of the above.

The answer is c. a & b are correct.

Pelvimetry is the measurement of the pelvis, and it can be performed in pregnant women and patients with acute abdomen.

In pregnant women, pelvimetry is used to assess the size and shape of the pelvis to determine if it is large enough for the baby to pass through during childbirth. In patients with acute abdomen, pelvimetry may be used to identify any abnormalities of the pelvis that could be causing their symptoms.

Pelvimetry can be performed using a variety of methods, including:

Clinical pelvimetry:

This involves a physical examination of the pelvis to assess its size and shape.

X-ray pelvimetry:

This involves taking X-rays of the pelvis to get more detailed measurements.

Computed tomography (CT) pelvimetry:

This involves taking multiple X-rays of the pelvis from different angles to create a 3D image of the pelvis.

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pelvimetry:

This involves using magnets and radio waves to create detailed images of the pelvis.

The method of pelvimetry that is used will depend on the individual patient's needs and the availability of equipment.

Therefore, the correct answer is c. a & b are correct.

which of the following personnel radiation monitors will provide an immediate reading:

a. TLD
b. film badge
c. lithium fluoride chips
d. pocket dosimeter.

The answer is d. pocket dosimeter.

Pocket dosimeters are also known as direct-reading dosimeters, self-reading pocket dosimeters, and pocket electroscopes. They provide an immediate reading of an individual's radiation exposure to X-rays and gamma rays.

The other options are all types of passive dosimeters, which must be processed in a laboratory to determine the amount of radiation exposure.

TLD stands for thermoluminescent dosimeter.
Film badges use photographic film to record radiation exposure.
Lithium fluoride chips are a type of passive dosimeter that is more sensitive than film badges.

Therefore, the only personnel radiation monitor that will provide an immediate reading is a pocket dosimeter.

which are the position most commonly employed for radiographic examination of the sternum?

1- lateral
2- RAO
3- LAO

a. 1and 3 only
b.1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only

The two most commonly employed positions for radiographic examination of the sternum are:

PA (posteroanterior) view:

In this view, the patient lies face down on the X-ray table with their arms at their sides. The X-ray beam is directed from the back to the front of the patient. This view is used to assess the overall structure of the sternum, as well as to look for any fractures or other abnormalities.

Lateral view:

In this view, the patient lies on their side with their arm closest to the X-ray table raised above their head. The X-ray beam is directed from side to side of the patient. This view is used to assess the depth of the sternum, as well as to look for any fractures or other abnormalities that may not be visible on the PA view.

The LAO (left anterior oblique) and RAO (right anterior oblique) views are used less commonly. These views are used to get a better look at specific areas of the sternum, such as the manubriosternal joint or the costosternal joints.