A 61-year-old man is admitted with
central crushing chest pain to the Emergency Department. An ECG taken
immediately on arrival shows ST-elevation in leads II, III and aVF. His only
past medical history of note is hypertension for which he takes ramipril,
aspirin and simvastatin.
What is the optimum management of this
patient?
(LMWH = low-molecular weight heparin)
A.A Aspirin + clopidogrel + LMWH + repeat ECG in 20 minutesia
B.A Clopidogrel + LMWH + alteplaseia
C.A Aspirin + clopidogrel + LMWH + tenecteplaseia
D.A Aspirin + clopidogrel + LMWH + alteplaseia
E.A Aspirin + clopidogrel + IV heparin + immediate percutaneous coronary
intervention***
Labels
cardiology