Showing posts with label cardiology. Show all posts
Showing posts with label cardiology. Show all posts

A 57-year-old man with NYHA class III heart failure is currently treated with furosemide and ramipril.. Bisoprolol

A 57-year-old man with NYHA class III heart failure is currently treated with furosemide and ramipril.

What is the most suitable beta-blocker to add to improve his long-term prognosis?
  • A. A Acebutolol
  • B. A Labetalol
  • C. A Bisoprolol***
  • D. A Sotalol
  • E. A Esmolol.

The most suitable beta-blocker to add to the patient's treatment regimen is C. Bisoprolol.

Bisoprolol is a selective beta-1 blocker that has been extensively studied and proven to improve long-term prognosis in patients with heart failure. It helps to reduce heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial workload, leading to improved symptoms and reduced mortality.

Here's a brief comparison of the other options:

  • Acebutolol: While it has some beta-blocking properties, it also has alpha-1 blocking effects, which can lead to hypotension and dizziness, especially in patients with heart failure.
  • Labetalol: Similar to acebutolol, labetalol has both beta-blocking and alpha-blocking properties. It can be useful in hypertensive emergencies but is generally not the first-line choice for chronic heart failure.
  • Sotalol: This drug has both beta-blocking and potassium channel-blocking properties. It is primarily used for arrhythmias and is not typically recommended for heart failure.
  • Esmolol: This is a short-acting beta-blocker used primarily for acute conditions, such as rapid heart rate. It is not suitable for long-term treatment of heart failure.
Therefore, based on its efficacy and safety profile, bisoprolol is the most appropriate beta-blocker for this patient. However, it is important to note that the choice of beta-blocker should be individualized and based on the patient's specific clinical condition and other medications they are taking. It's always best to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized advice.

A 52-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. He was found collapsed by neighbours. An ECG on arrival shows torsades de pointes.. Risperidone

A 52-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department.

He was found collapsed by neighbours. An ECG on arrival shows torsades de pointes. Which one of his medications is most likely to have contributed to this presentation?
  • A- Bisoprolol.
  • B- Cimetidine.
  • C- Risperidone.
  • D- Phenytoin.
  • E- Doxycycline..

Based on the provided information and the potential for QT prolongation, the most likely medication to have contributed to the patient's torsades de pointes is: D. Phenytoin

Here's the reasoning behind this:

- Torsades de pointes:

This is a type of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia associated with QT prolongation on the ECG.

- QT prolongation:

Some medications can prolong the QT interval on the ECG, increasing the risk of torsades de pointes.

- Drug-induced torsades de pointes:

Several medications, including antiarrhythmics, antipsychotics, and antibiotics, can cause this condition.

Analysis of the options:

A. Bisoprolol:

While bisoprolol can theoretically prolong the QT interval, it is not a common culprit for torsades de pointes.

B. Cimetidine:

Cimetidine can prolong the QT interval, but it is less likely than phenytoin to cause torsades de pointes.

C. Risperidone:

Risperidone has been linked to QT prolongation, but the risk is considered low.

E. Doxycycline:

Doxycycline is not known to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes.

Therefore, based on the information provided, phenytoin is the most likely medication to have contributed to the patient's presentation of torsades de pointes.

Disclaimer:

This is for educational purposes only and should not be considered medical advice. Always consult with a qualified healthcare professional for diagnosis and treatment of medical conditions.

It's important to note that other factors, such as electrolyte imbalances or underlying medical conditions, could also contribute to torsades de pointes. A thorough medical evaluation is necessary to determine the exact cause in this case.

A 54-year-old man with angina has a percutaneous coronary intervention with insertion of a drug-eluting stent.. A Premature withdrawal of antiplatelet therapy

A 54-year-old man with angina has a percutaneous coronary intervention with insertion of a drug-eluting stent.
What is the single most important risk factor for stent thrombosis?

A- A Age of patient

B- A Premature withdrawal of antiplatelet therapy***

C- A Failing to adhere to cardiac rehabilitation program

D- A Duration of procedure

E- A History of diabetes mellitus

A 70-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medicine Unit as he is pyrexial. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease and had a bioprosthetic mitral valve replacement.. benzylpenicillin + gentamicin

A 70-year-old man is admitted to the Acute Medicine Unit as he is pyrexial and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease and had a bioprosthetic mitral valve replacement 5 years ago. An echocardiogram is arranged which shows a vegetation around the mitral valve. Blood cultures are taken which are reported as follows: Streptococcus viridans
What is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?
A- A IV benzylpenicillin + gentamicin***
B- A IV ceftriaxone + benzylpenicillin
C- A IV flucloxacillin + gentamicin
D- A IV vancomycin + rifampicin + gentamicin
E- A IV vancomycin + benzylpenicillin.

Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside. It is used as an antibiotic to eradicate infections against sensitive bacteria.
It is used to treat various serious diseases of the skin, lung, stomach, urinary tract and blood, as well as skin and eye wounds.
Its use is indicated when the administration of other less potent antibiotics has been ineffective.
Due to its high toxicity and multiple side effects, its use should be avoided if it is not strictly necessary.
They concentrate on the ear and kidney, therefore they have ototoxic and nephrotoxic side effects.

Indications:
Some treated eye diseases are: blepharitis, conjunctivitis, dacryocystitis and keratitis.
It is also used for cleaning the connective membrane before eye surgery.
Other diseases he treats are: bacterial septicemia, peritonitis, staphylococcal pneumonia, Klebsiella pneumonia, acute otitis media, meningitis, ventriculitis, bone diseases, sinusitis and prevention of burn infections, among several others.
It is also used intratympanicly, to treat Ménière's disease in cases resistant to other treatments, as an alternative to surgery.
Gentamicin remains the aminoglycoside of choice for hospital-acquired infections due to enterobacteriaceae in institutions with minimal bacterial resistance to it.
It is common to see its association with β-lactams for these infections.

Endocarditis:
In combination with ampicillin, penicillin or vancomycin is indicated in cases of endocarditis caused by Streptococcus viridans or sensitive enterococci.
In combination with ampicillin or vancomycin, they are used in cases of patients allergic to penicillin for prophylaxis in bacterial endocarditis in high-risk patients.
In combination with anti-staphylococcal penicillins for tricuspid endocarditis caused by Staphylococcus aureus in intravenous drug users.
In association with vancomycin and rifampicin it is indicated in the treatment of endocarditis caused by negative coagulase staphylococcus in patients with valvular prostheses.
In combination with antipseudomone penicillins for the treatment of serious infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa such as bacteremia, endocarditis and onset of malignant otitis externa.
In combination with ceftriaxone for the treatment of endocarditis due to penicillin-sensitive streptococcus.

Mechanism of action:
Its mechanism of action consists in interfering with the normal synthesis of proteins, originating non-functional proteins in susceptible microorganisms.
To exert their action they must enter the bacterial cell.
This occurs in 2 stages by an active transport mechanism. In the first phase, the entry into the cell depends on the transmembrane potential generated by aerobic metabolism.
The second phase is accelerated admission, and is favored by the previous binding of the aminoglycoside to the bacterial ribosome.
Certain conditions that reduce the electrical potential of the membrane such as anaerobiosis or the low pH of the medium, decrease the entry of these compounds into the bacterial cytoplasm.
Once inside the cell, the aminoglycosides bind irreversibly to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome.
This union interferes with the elongation of the peptide chain.
They also cause incorrect readings of the genetic code forming abnormal proteins.
Some of these are membrane proteins and the result is the formation of channels that allow more drugs to enter the cell.

Action spectrum:
It is active against Gram negatives, especially Escherichia coli, Proteus species (indole-positive and indole-negative), Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella species, Enterobacter, Serratia, Citrobacter, and Staphylococcus species (coagulase-positive and coagulase-negative, including strains resistant to penicillin and methicillin).
Anaerobes, such as Bacteroides or Clostridium, and most Streptococcus species are usually resistant to aminoglycosides.

Examination reveals that she is in atrial fibrillation. CT scan of her brain shows a cerebral infarction.. Aspirin started immediately switching to life-long warfarin after 2 weeks

A 62-year-old female with no past medical history is admitted to hospital with a leftsided hemiparesis. Examination reveals that she is in atrial fibrillation. CT scan of her brain shows a cerebral infarction.
What is the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy for this patient?
A.A Life-long warfarin, started immediately
B.A Aspirin started immediately switching to life-long warfarin after 2 weeks***
C.A Life-long aspirin, started immediately
D.A Life-long aspirin started after 2 weeks
E.A 6 months of warfarin, started immediately.

A 72-year-old man is started on amlodipine 5mg od for hypertension. He has no other past medical history of note and routine bloods (including fasting glucose) and ECG were normal.. 140/90 mmHg

A 72-year-old man is started on amlodipine 5mg od for hypertension. He has no other past medical history of note and routine bloods (including fasting glucose) and ECG were normal.
What should his target blood pressure be once on treatment?ia
A.A 130/80 mmHg
B.A 140/80 mmHg
C.A 140/85 mmHg
D.A 140/90 mmHg***
E.A 150/90 mmHg.

A 62-year-old man is examined in the cardiology clinic. During cardiac auscultation it is noted that the pulmonary component of the second heart sound occurs before the aortic.. Left bundle branch block

A 62-year-old man is examined in the cardiology clinic. During cardiac auscultation it is noted that the pulmonary component of the second heart sound occurs before the aortic.
Which one of the following is associated with this finding?
A.A Pulmonary stenosis
B.A Left bundle branch block***
C.A Right bundle branch block
D.A Atrial septal defect
E.A Deep inspiration.

You review a 69-year-old man who is known to have angina and heart failure.. Felodipine

You review a 69-year-old man who is known to have angina and heart failure. His current medications include aspirin, simvastatin, bisoprolol, glyceryl trinitrate, ramipril and frusemide. Despite his current medications he is still having frequent angina attacks when he exerts himself. You decide to add a calcium channel blocker.
Which one of the following is it most appropriate to add?
A.A Felodipine***
B.A Diltiazem
C.A Nimodipine
D.A Lacidipine
E.A Verapamil.

A 78-year-old man with a four month history of exertional chest pain is reviewed.. Manage as angina, no further diagnostic tests required

A 78-year-old man with a four month history of exertional chest pain is reviewed. The pain typically comes on when he is walking up a hill, is centrally located and radiates to the left arm. Clinical examination and a resting 12 lead ECG are normal. Following NICE guidelines.
what is the most appropriate diagnostic strategy?
A.A CT calcium scoring
B.A Manage as angina, no further diagnostic tests required***
C.A Exercise tolerance test
D.A MPS with SPECT
E.A Coronary angiography.