Showing posts with label Practice Exam. Show all posts

When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize.. Avoiding very heavy meals

When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize:

A- Eating three (3) balanced meals a day
B- Adding complex carbohydrates
C- Avoiding very heavy meals
D- Limiting sodium to 7 gms per day

When teaching a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize D. Limiting sodium to 7 gms per day.

Here's why the other options are less relevant or incorrect:

A. Eating three (3) balanced meals a day:

While maintaining a regular eating pattern can be beneficial, the specific number of meals isn't the primary focus in CAD nutrition education.

B. Adding complex carbohydrates:

While complex carbohydrates can be part of a healthy diet for individuals with CAD, it's not the single most crucial point to emphasize.

C. Avoiding very heavy meals:

This may be a recommendation in some cases, but it's not the most essential aspect of dietary management for CAD.

Sodium restriction:

Excessive sodium intake is a significant risk factor for high blood pressure, which puts additional strain on the heart and can worsen CAD.

Limiting sodium intake to 7 grams per day is a widely recommended target for individuals with CAD to help manage their blood pressure and improve overall cardiovascular health.

Therefore, focusing on sodium restriction remains the most crucial point the nurse should emphasize when educating a client with CAD about nutrition.

Important guidelines:

However, it's important to provide a comprehensive and personalized approach to dietary management, which may include guidance on various aspects like:

- Choosing healthier fats:

Limiting saturated and trans fats while including sources of unsaturated fats like fish, nuts, and avocado.

- Increasing fiber intake:

Including fruits, vegetables, and whole grains to promote healthy digestion and manage cholesterol levels.

- Maintaining a healthy weight:

Managing weight loss or preventing weight gain can significantly improve cardiovascular health.

Remember, consulting a qualified healthcare professional or registered dietitian is crucial for creating a personalized nutrition plan tailored to the individual's specific needs and condition.

What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of children during their school age years?

A- Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass
B- Little change in body appearance from year to year
C- Progressive height increase of 4 inches each year
D- Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year

Answer: D:

Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year
School age children gain about 5.5 pounds each year and increase about 2 inches in height.

The most likely thing a nurse would expect to see while assessing the growth of children during their school age years is:

D- Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year

Here's why the other options are less likely:

A- Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass:

This is more typical of adolescence, not the school-age years (6-12 years old).

B- Little change in body appearance from year to year:

While growth may slow down compared to early childhood, some changes are still expected in school-age children, such as gradual increases in height and weight.

C- Progressive height increase of 4 inches each year:

This is an overestimate of the average height gain for school-age children, which is typically around 2-3 inches per year.

It's important to remember that growth can vary significantly among individual children, and the nurse would consider factors like the child's age, genetics, nutrition, and overall health when assessing their growth. However, a steady weight gain of around 5.5 pounds per year is a good general indicator of healthy growth during the school-age years.

A patient’s chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A. Increased appetite
B. Vomiting
C. Fever
D. Poor tolerance of light

The correct answer is (A).

While meningitis can sometimes present with increased appetite in rare cases, it is typically not one of the expected symptoms. Therefore, option A (Increased appetite) is the least likely finding in a patient with acute meningitis.

Here's why the other options are more likely to be present in acute meningitis:

B. Vomiting:

Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of meningitis due to increased pressure in the head and irritation of the lining of the brain and spinal cord.

C. Fever:

Fever is a hallmark symptom of acute meningitis, often high and persistent.

D. Poor tolerance of light (photophobia):

This is another common symptom caused by inflammation and irritation of the meninges, making bright light uncomfortable.

It's important to remember that not every patient with meningitis will experience all the symptoms, and the severity can vary. However, increased appetite is not typically associated with acute meningitis.

A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea.

The client’s temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is:

A- Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
B- Control nausea
C- Manage pain
D- Prevent urinary tract infection

The priority nursing goal for this client with renal calculi, flank pain, nausea, and fever is: C) Manage pain.

Here's why:

- Pain:

Moderate to severe flank pain is a hallmark symptom of renal calculi and can be incredibly distressing for the patient. Managing pain is crucial to improve their comfort and well-being, allowing them to cooperate with further investigations and treatments.

- Fever:

A temperature of 100.8°F suggests a potential infection, which can worsen the pain and lead to complications. While managing the fever is important, it's secondary to addressing the immediate and severe pain.

- Nausea:

While nausea can be distressing, it's often a secondary symptom of the pain and fever. Managing the pain may indirectly alleviate the nausea.

- Fluid and electrolyte balance:

Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance is important for kidney health and preventing complications. However, it's not the immediate priority in this situation with severe pain and potential infection.

- Urinary tract infection (UTI):

Preventing UTIs is crucial for patients with renal calculi. However, it's not the immediate priority in this acute scenario.

Therefore, while all the listed options are important for this client's care, managing the severe pain takes precedence due to its immediate impact on the patient's comfort and potential to worsen the clinical situation. Once the pain is managed, other interventions like fever control, fluid management, and UTI prevention can be addressed.

Remember, this is a general guideline based on the information provided. The specific priority may vary depending on the individual patient's presentation and any additional factors identified during the assessment.

In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school-age child for evaluation?

A- Polyphagia
B- Dehydration
C- Bedwetting
D- Weight loss

The most likely complaint to prompt parents to take their school-age child for evaluation for diabetes would be: D. Weight loss.

Here's why:

- Polyphagia (excessive hunger):

While polyphagia is a symptom of diabetes, it can be subtle and sometimes attributed to other factors in children, like growth spurts or increased physical activity.

- Dehydration:

Dehydration can have numerous causes, including other childhood illnesses, and wouldn't necessarily raise immediate suspicion of diabetes unless accompanied by other specific symptoms.

- Bedwetting:

Bedwetting in school-age children is relatively common and can have various causes beyond diabetes. While diabetes can cause increased urination, a sudden onset of bedwetting might not be the first concern for parents.

- Weight loss:

Unexplained weight loss, especially in a short period, is a much more noticeable and concerning symptom for parents. Children with diabetes often lose weight as their bodies try to use muscle and fat for energy due to insulin deficiency. This can be a more alarming prompt for seeking medical evaluation.

Therefore, while all the listed symptoms can be associated with diabetes in children, weight loss is the most likely complaint to trigger immediate concern and prompt parents to seek medical evaluation for their child.

Remember, early diagnosis and proper management are crucial for children with diabetes to prevent complications. If you notice any worrying signs or symptoms in your child, consult a healthcare professional promptly.

An RN who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department.

Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

A- A middle-aged client who says “I took too many diet pills” and “my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest.”
B- A young adult who says “I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?”
C- An adolescent who has been on pain medications terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10,
D- An elderly client who reports having taken a “large crack hit” 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.

Answer: C:

An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10
Nurses who are floated to other units should be assigned to a client who has minimal anticipated immediate complications of their problem. The client in option C exhibits opioid toxicity with the pinpoint pupils and has the least risk of complications to occur in the near future.

The most appropriate client for the charge nurse to assign to the RN who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is:

C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 10.

Here's why:

- Client C's condition is potentially stable:

While terminal cancer is a serious condition, the initial assessment of normal pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate suggests a relatively stable situation. This aligns with the RN's experience in spinal rehabilitation, which often involves managing stable chronic conditions.

- Client C's needs may not require specialized emergency care:

The initial assessment doesn't raise immediate red flags for acute emergencies requiring specialized emergency department (ED) expertise. The RN's rehabilitation background could be valuable for managing pain and monitoring the patient's comfort.

- Other clients present more complex or urgent situations:

A and D: Both involve potential overdoses requiring immediate medical intervention and specialized ED management.
B: This client presents with potential withdrawal symptoms and mental health concerns, which might require different expertise than spinal rehabilitation.

Therefore, assigning Client C to the RN from spinal rehabilitation allows them to utilize their skills in managing chronic conditions while minimizing exposure to potentially overwhelming or complex cases in the busy ED environment.

It's important to note that this is a general recommendation based on the limited information provided. The charge nurse should ultimately consider all available information, including the RN's specific skills and experience, to make the most appropriate assignment for each client's needs and the overall functioning of the ED.

During the evaluation of the quality of home care for a client with Alzheimer’s disease, the priority for the nurse is to reinforce which statement by a family member?

A- At least two (2) full meals a day is eaten.
B- We go to a group discussion every week at our community center.
C- We have safety bars installed in the bathroom and have 24-hour alarms on the doors.
D- The medication is not a problem to have it taken three (3) times a day.

Answer: C:

We have safety bars installed in the bathroom and have 24-hour alarms on the doors.
Ensuring safety of the client with increasing memory loss is a priority of home care.

Note all options are correct statements. However, safety is most important to reinforce.

The priority for the nurse to reinforce in the context of evaluating home care quality for a client with Alzheimer's disease is:

C- We have safety bars installed in the bathroom and have 24-hour alarms on the doors.

Here's why:

- A and D:

While proper nutrition and medication adherence are important aspects of care, they don't directly address the unique safety needs of an Alzheimer's patient at home.

- B:

Engaging in social activities can be beneficial for mental stimulation, but its absence doesn't necessarily indicate poor home care quality.

- C:

Safety measures like grab bars and alarms directly address fall prevention and wandering, which are major concerns for Alzheimer's patients at home. These measures reduce the risk of serious injuries and contribute significantly to the quality of home care.

Therefore, reinforcing the family member's statement about safety measures highlights a crucial aspect of ensuring a safe and secure environment for the client with Alzheimer's disease, making it the priority for the nurse.

Remember, safety is paramount for Alzheimer's patients, and proper safety measures at home significantly contribute to their well-being and the overall quality of their care.

A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis.

Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A- Yersinia pestis
B- Helicobacter pylori
C- Vibrio cholerae
D- Haemophilus aegyptius

The answer is: D) Haemophilus aegyptius

Here's why the other options are not related to conjunctivitis:

A) Yersinia pestis:

This bacterium causes bubonic plague, not conjunctivitis.

B) Helicobacter pylori:

This bacterium causes ulcers in the stomach and duodenum, not conjunctivitis.

C) Vibrio cholerae:

This bacterium causes cholera, a severe diarrhoeal disease, not conjunctivitis.

Haemophilus aegyptius is one of the bacteria that can cause conjunctivitis, particularly in warmer climates. It is often associated with swimming pool-related outbreaks.

Therefore, based on the information provided, D) Haemophilus aegyptius is the most likely microorganism associated with the patient's conjunctivitis.

A nurse enters a client’s room to discover that the client has no pulse or respirations.

After calling for help, the first action the nurse should take is:

A- Start a peripheral IV
B- Initiate high-quality chest compressions
C- Establish an airway
D- Obtain the crash cart

The first action the nurse should take after calling for help in this situation is: B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions.

Here's why:

- Time is critical:

When a person has no pulse or respirations, they are in cardiac arrest and lack blood flow to vital organs. Every second counts, and starting chest compressions immediately is crucial to prevent irreversible damage.

- Other actions follow compression:

While establishing an airway and obtaining the crash cart are both important steps, they should not delay the initiation of chest compressions. The American Heart Association and other guidelines recommend starting chest compressions within 10 seconds of recognizing cardiac arrest.

- Chest compressions can restore circulation:

High-quality chest compressions help maintain blood flow to the heart and brain, buying time until other interventions like defibrillation and medication can be implemented.

Therefore, prompt initiation of chest compressions is the highest priority in this emergency situation. The nurse should call for help and then immediately begin chest compressions while also preparing for other necessary interventions.

Procedural order:

Here's the recommended order of actions according to the American Heart Association's Basic Life Support guidelines:

Recognize cardiac arrest: Assess the patient for responsiveness, breathing, and pulse.
Call for help: Activate the emergency medical system (EMS) immediately.
Start chest compressions: Begin high-quality chest compressions without any delay.
Open the airway: Tilt the head and lift the chin to open the airway.
Deliver rescue breaths (if trained): If trained and confident, provide two rescue breaths after every 30 chest compressions.
Defibrillate (if available): If an AED is readily available, use it according to the device instructions.
Continue CPR: Continue chest compressions and rescue breaths (if trained) until emergency medical services arrive and take over.

Remember, time is of the essence in cardiac arrest. Prompt recognition and intervention, with emphasis on immediate chest compressions, can significantly improve the chances of survival.

A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confused pattern.

The male is sweaty and pale.
Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A- Blood sugar check
B- CT scan
C- Blood cultures
D- Arterial blood gases

The most likely first test for the 28-year-old male in this scenario is A. Blood sugar check.

Here's why:

- Wandering with confusion:

These are common symptoms of hypoglycemia, a potentially life-threatening condition involving low blood sugar.

- Sweaty and pale:

These are also symptoms of hypoglycemia and other metabolic emergencies.

- Blood sugar check:

This is a rapid and non-invasive test that can quickly assess blood glucose levels and potentially identify hypoglycemia as the cause of the man's behavior and physical state.

While other tests might be conducted later or concurrently depending on the initial findings, a blood sugar check is the most urgent and relevant first step due to the immediate potential danger of hypoglycemia and the ease and rapidity of obtaining the information.

Other Options:

Here's a breakdown of the other options and their relevance:

B. CT scan:

This is a more complex and time-consuming procedure and while it could be necessary later to rule out other potential causes like head injury, it's not the immediate priority given the symptoms pointing towards a metabolic cause.

C. Blood cultures:

These are typically used to detect infections, which might be a less likely explanation initially compared to the readily testable possibility of hypoglycemia.

D. Arterial blood gases:

This test could be useful in certain situations but may not be the first option given the initial focus on ruling out life-threatening metabolic causes like hypoglycemia.

It's important to remember that this is a general suggestion based on the given information. The precise medical decisions and order of tests will depend on the specific evaluation and judgment of the healthcare professional attending to the patient.

A child who has recently been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is in a pediatric clinic where a nurse is performing an assessment.

Which later finding of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?

A- Positive sweat test.
B- Bulky greasy stools.
C- Moist, productive cough.
D- Meconium ileus.

The answer is D. Meconium ileus.

Here's why:

- Positive sweat test:

This is a diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis and is expected to be positive in a child with the disease.

- Bulky greasy stools:

These are a common symptom of cystic fibrosis due to pancreatic insufficiency, and may be present at any stage of the disease.

- Moist, productive cough:

This is another common symptom of cystic fibrosis and can be present early on.

- Meconium ileus:

This is a blockage of the newborn's intestines by thick meconium, the first stool passed after birth. While it is a complication of cystic fibrosis, it occurs within the first 48 hours of life and would not be expected to be seen in a child undergoing an assessment at a pediatric clinic.

Therefore, meconium ileus is the finding that the nurse would not expect to see at this time in a child with newly diagnosed cystic fibrosis.

It's important to note that cystic fibrosis can have a wide range of symptoms and presentations, and the timing of these symptoms can vary. However, meconium ileus is a specific finding that is typically present in the newborn period and not later in life.

Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward-feedback system?

A- Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible.
B- Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time.
C- Positive statements are to precede a negative statement.
D- Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable..

The statement that best describes the characteristics of an effective reward-feedback system is:

A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible.

Here's why:

- Timeliness:

The key to effective feedback is immediacy. When feedback is given close to the event, it allows the recipient to make fresh associations with their actions and understand the consequences more clearly. This strengthens the connection between behavior and outcome, leading to better learning and performance improvement.

- Specificity:

Effective feedback should not be vague or generic. It should pinpoint the specific behaviors or actions that are being praised or corrected. This provides clear guidance and helps the recipient focus on what they need to do differently.

- Positive Reinforcement:

While constructive criticism can be valuable, focusing on positive reinforcement through specific feedback about desirable behaviors is often more effective in motivating and shaping positive habits.

While the other options have some merit, they are not as crucial or accurate as option A:

B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time:

Consistency is important, but providing feedback only at regular intervals might not be relevant to specific actions or immediate adjustments.

C. Positive statements are to precede a negative statement:

While a "sandwich" approach (positive, negative, positive) can soften criticism, immediate and specific feedback, regardless of positivity or negativity, is more impactful for learning.

D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable:

Setting unreasonably high goals can be demotivating and counterproductive. Effective goals should be challenging but achievable, providing a sense of accomplishment and promoting further improvement.

Therefore, based on the principles of timeliness, specificity, and positive reinforcement, option A (specific feedback given as close to the event as possible) is the most accurate and effective characteristic of a reward-feedback system.

Remember:

effective feedback is a valuable tool for motivating, guiding, and developing others. By focusing on its key characteristics, you can create a system that fosters growth and achieves desired outcomes.

A triage nurse has these four (4) clients arrive in the emergency .department within 15 minutes.

Which client should the triage nurse send back to be seen first?

A- A 2-month-old infant with a history of rolling off the bed and has bulging fontanels with crying
B- A teenager who got a singed beard while camping
C- An elderly client with complaints of frequent liquid brown colored stools
D- A middle-aged client with intermittent pain behind the right scapula

Answer: B:

A teenager who got signed beard while camping. This client is in the greatest danger with a potential of respiratory distress. Any client with singed facial hair has been exposed to heat or fire in close range that could have caused serious damage to the interior of the lungs. Note that the interior lining of the lungs have no nerve fibers so the client will not be aware of swelling.

Caring for someone in respiratory distress:

A nurse can care for a person in respiratory distress in a variety of ways, depending on the severity of the situation and the resources available.

Immediate care:

Assess the person's airway, breathing, and circulation. This is known as the ABCs of emergency care.
If the person is unconscious, check for a pulse and breathing. If the person is not breathing, start CPR.
If the person's airway is blocked, try to clear it by gently tilting their head back and lifting their chin. If the person is conscious, you may also be able to clear the airway by having them cough or by using a suction device.
If the person is having trouble breathing, administer oxygen as needed. Oxygen can be delivered through a nasal cannula, face mask, or non-rebreather mask.
If the person is in severe respiratory distress, they may need to be intubated and placed on a ventilator. Intubation is a procedure that involves inserting a tube into the trachea (windpipe) to help the person breathe.

Ongoing care:

Monitor the person's vital signs, including their respiratory rate, heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation.
Provide the person with supplemental oxygen as needed.
Administer medications as prescribed by the doctor. This may include medications to bronchodilate (open up the airways), reduce inflammation, or treat the underlying cause of the respiratory distress, such as an infection or allergic reaction.
Position the person in a way that makes it easier for them to breathe. This may involve sitting them up or having them lie on their side.
Encourage the person to cough up any secretions. This will help to clear the airways and prevent pneumonia.
Provide emotional support to the person and their family. Respiratory distress can be a very frightening experience, so it is important to be there for the person and to offer them your support.

The nurse will also work closely with the doctor to develop a treatment plan for the person. The treatment plan will be based on the underlying cause of the respiratory distress and the person's individual needs.

Additional things to care for someone in respiratory distress:

Here are some additional things a nurse can do to care for a person in respiratory distress:

Keep the person's airway moist. This can be done by using a humidifier or by having the person breathe in steam from a shower or bowl of hot water.
Monitor the person's fluid intake and output. It is important to make sure that the person is not getting too much or too little fluid.
Provide the person with nutritional support. This may involve giving them food and drinks orally, or it may involve providing them with nutrients through an intravenous (IV) line.
Help the person to ambulate as soon as possible. This will help to prevent pneumonia and other complications.
Educate the person and their family about respiratory distress and how to manage it at home. This will help the person to prevent future episodes of respiratory distress and to be prepared if an episode does occur.

Nurses play a vital role in the care of people with respiratory distress. By providing prompt and effective care, nurses can help to improve the person's outcome and prevent complications.

The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L.

The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq KCL in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

A. Narrowed QRS complex
B. Shortened “PR” interval
C. Tall peaked “T” waves
D. Prominent “U” waves

Answer: C: Tall peaked T waves

A tall peaked T wave is a sign of hyperkalemia. The healthcare provider should be notified regarding discontinuing the medication.

The EKG pattern that indicates the nurse should discontinue the potassium infusion is: C. Tall peaked “T” waves.

Here's why:

- Potassium (K+):

Plays a crucial role in cardiac function, influencing the electrical activity of the heart.

Low potassium (hypokalemia): Can cause various EKG abnormalities, including widened QRS complex, prolonged PR interval, and flattened T waves.

- High potassium (hyperkalemia):

Can also cause EKG abnormalities, including tall peaked T waves, which are the most characteristic indicator.

- Infusion of potassium:

In this case, the client's potassium level is already low (3.5 mEq/L), and receiving 40 mEq KCL can further elevate it, potentially leading to hyperkalemia.

Therefore, the nurse should discontinue the infusion if the client shows tall peaked T waves on the EKG, as it signifies a potentially dangerous rise in potassium levels.

Here's a breakdown of the other options:

A. Narrowed QRS complex:

This is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia.

B. Shortened “PR” interval:

This is more commonly associated with hypokalemia.

D. Prominent “U” waves:

While these can be seen in some cases of hyperkalemia, they are not the most characteristic or reliable indicator.

Remember:

interpreting EKGs requires a comprehensive understanding of the patient's clinical context and other EKG findings. However, in this specific scenario, the presence of tall peaked T waves is a strong indication for discontinuing the potassium infusion and seeking further medical intervention.

The nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric feeding tube.

The most important action of the nurse is:

A. Verify correct placement of the tube
B. Check that the feeding solution matches the dietary order
C. Aspirate abdominal contents to determine the amount of last feeding remaining in stomach
D. Ensure that feeding solution is at room temperature

The most important action of the nurse is to A. Verify correct placement of the tube.

Before administering enteral feeding, it is crucial to ensure that the nasogastric (NG) tube is correctly positioned in the stomach. This is essential to prevent complications such as accidental tube misplacement into the lungs, which can lead to pneumonia.

- Option B, "Check that the feeding solution matches the dietary order,":

is also important, but it is secondary to verifying tube placement. The nurse should double-check that the feeding solution matches the client's specific dietary requirements and preferences.

- Option C, "Aspirate abdominal contents to determine the amount of last feeding remaining in stomach,":

is not always necessary. In some cases, the nurse may aspirate stomach contents to assess gastric residual volume, but this is not always routine and depends on the client's specific condition.

- Option D, "Ensure that feeding solution is at room temperature,":

is not a critical step. The feeding solution can be administered at room temperature or slightly warmed, depending on the client's preference and comfort level.

Therefore, the primary action to ensure safe and effective enteral feeding is to A. Verify correct placement of the tube.

A 5-year-old child and has been recently admitted to the hospital.

According to Erik Erikson’s psychosocial development stages, the child is in which stage?

A- Trust vs. mistrust
B- Initiative vs. guilt
C- Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
D- Intimacy vs. isolation

The correct answer is C- Autonomy vs. shame and doubt.

Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory identifies eight stages that individuals go through throughout their lives. Each stage is characterized by a psychosocial conflict that the individual must resolve in order to develop positively.

The third stage, autonomy vs. shame and doubt, occurs between the ages of 3 and 5. During this stage, children are developing their independence and sense of self-control. They are learning to make decisions, express their opinions, and assert themselves. They are also learning to control their emotions and impulses.

A 5-year-old child who is hospitalized is likely to be experiencing challenges related to autonomy vs. shame and doubt. The child may be feeling helpless and dependent on others due to their illness. They may also be feeling ashamed or embarrassed about their condition.

Here are some of the signs that a child is developing autonomy:

The child is able to make choices and express their preferences.
The child is able to control their emotions and impulses.
The child is able to assert themselves and stand up for themselves.

Here are some of the signs that a child is struggling with shame and doubt:

The child is hesitant to make choices or express their preferences.
The child is easily discouraged and gives up easily.
The child is afraid of making mistakes.

Parents and caregivers can help children develop autonomy by providing them with opportunities to make choices, express their opinions, and assert themselves. They can also help children by praising their efforts and accomplishments, and by providing them with a safe and secure environment.

A 20-year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room.

She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A. Blood sugar check
B. CT scan
C. Blood cultures
D. Arterial blood gases

Answer: C. Blood cultures

Blood cultures would be performed to investigate the fever and rash symptoms.

Safety Guidelines Incorporated:

One of the first things the doctors will do is order blood cultures. Blood cultures are a test that is used to check for bacteria in the blood. The test is done by taking a sample of the patient's blood and placing it in a special bottle that contains nutrients. The bottle is then placed in an incubator, which is a warm environment that allows the bacteria to grow. If there are bacteria in the blood, they will grow in the bottle and can be identified and treated.

Blood cultures are an important test for diagnosing sepsis, which is a serious infection that can lead to organ failure and death. Sepsis is more common in young people and people with weakened immune systems.

Other tests:

Other tests that the doctors may order include:

- Complete blood count (CBC):

This test measures the different types of cells in the blood, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

- Basic metabolic panel (BMP):

This test measures the levels of electrolytes, such as sodium and potassium, and other important substances in the blood.

- Urinalysis:

This test analyzes the urine for signs of infection, such as bacteria and white blood cells.

- Chest X-ray:

This test can be used to look for signs of pneumonia, which is an infection of the lungs.

Treatment:

The treatment for the patient will depend on the cause of the infection. If the patient has sepsis, she will need to be treated with intravenous antibiotics. She may also need other supportive care, such as fluids and oxygen.

If the patient has a viral infection, such as the flu, there is no specific treatment. The patient will need to rest and drink plenty of fluids. She may also need over-the-counter medications to relieve her symptoms.

Prognosis:

The prognosis for the patient will depend on the cause of the infection and the severity of the infection. Most patients with infections make a full recovery. However, some patients with severe infections may develop complications, such as organ failure.

Which of the following should the nurse implement to prepare a client for a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiograph test?

A. Client must be NPO before the examination
B. Enema to be administered prior to the examination
C. Medicate client with Lasix 20 mg IV 30 minutes prior to the examination
D. No special orders are necessary for this examination

Answer: D.

No special orders are necessary for this examination
No special preparation is necessary for this examination.

How would you prepare a patient for radiographic examination?

The patient should have nothing to eat or drink after midnight, or 6 hours prior to the imaging study. Allow 2-4 hours for this examination. The patient should have nothing to eat or drink after midnight, or 6 hours prior to the imaging study.

How do you prepare a patient for radiography?

There are no special preparations required for this procedure.

What preparation is necessary before the diagnostic test?

For 6 hours before your test, do not eat or drink (except water). Do not even chew gum. If you have been advised to take your medications with food, eat nothing more than a few soda crackers 4-8 hours prior to your exam.

What should you do before a radiology test?

Do not eat or drink anything except water at least eight (8) hours prior to your procedure, and preferably beginning at 12 a.m. (midnight) the night before your procedure. If you are having an MRI and you have a pacemaker or heart defibrillator, please call our office immediately.

What is the importance of proper patient preparation for a radiographic examination?

Patient preparation is extremely important for ensuring that a high-quality image is produced and that errors are avoided (Table 3). For instance, incorrect patient preparation can lead to "ghost images" which can render the radiographic image undiagnostic.

What are the three basic rules of radiography?

ALARA means avoiding exposure to radiation that does not have a direct benefit to you, even if the dose is small. To do this, you can use three basic protective measures in radiation safety: time, distance, and shielding.

How do I prepare for a KUB ultrasound Australia?

Preparation: Fast from food for six hours prior to your appointment. Also, empty your bladder 1.5 hours prior to your appointment, then drink one litre of water. Then do not empty your bladder.

Which is the correct procedure when performing a bladder scan?

After the urethra is cleaned, a thin, flexible tube (called a catheter) is placed through and into the bladder. The liquid with radioactive material is moved through the tube to fill the bladder and you feel the fullness. The bladder is then scanned, and images are taken of the bladder and kidneys.

What is a radiologic examination of the kidneys ureters and bladder?

An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray examination of the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder that uses iodinated contrast material injected into veins. An x-ray exam helps doctors diagnose and treat medical conditions.

What is the best measure to determine kidney function?

Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR).

A UACR test lets the doctor know how much albumin passes into your urine over a 24-hour period. A urine albumin test result of 30 or above may mean kidney disease.

Which diagnostic examination is used to examine the flow of urine from the bladder and through the urethra?

Cystoscopy allows a health care provider to view the lower urinary tract to look for problems in the urethra and bladder. Surgical tools can be passed through the cystoscope to treat certain urinary tract conditions.

What is KUB xray format?

The kidneys, ureters, bladder (KUB) radiograph is optimized for assessment of the urogenital system, and should not be confused with the AP supine abdomen view. However, in cases where the patient may have both gastrointestinal and urogenital abnormalities, all pathologies will still be reported.

What position is the patient in for a CT KUB?

The patient is either placed in the supine or prone position into the CT scanner and has to remain still during the procedure. There is an advantage in the prone position, because it allows for better assessment of urinary stones at the vesicoureteral junction.

Which bowel preparations are appropriate for a patient with kidney failure?

The 2 L polyethylene glycol plus ascorbic acid solution is a safe choice for bowel preparation before colonoscopy in patients with impaired renal function.

What is an important nursing intervention in the care of a client with a kidney stone?

Encourage increased fluid intake and ambulation. Begin IV fluids if patient cannot take adequate oral fluids. Monitor total urine output and patterns of voiding. Encourage ambulation as a means of moving the stone through the urinary tract.

Do you need contrast for KUB?

CT KUB (kidneys, ureters and bladder) or urogram is a non-contrast CT study that investigates the urinary tract. Contrast is not required in this examination to allow calcified structures/ masses to be visualised on the scan.

What are the two rules of radiography?

These rules are:- 1- Two views: One view is too few; 2- Two joints: Above and below the injured bone; 3- Two sides: Compare with the other normal side; 4- Two abnormalities:Find a second abnormality; 5- Two occasions: Compare the current x-ray with a previous one (especially in CXR); 6- Two visits: Repeat after an ...

What are the three 3 major factors affecting radiographic image quality?

The important components of the radiographic image quality include contrast, dynamic range, spatial resolution, noise, and artifacts.

What are the 3 specialties of radiology?

Since the discovery of X-rays in 1895, the applications of radiation in medicine have broadened tremendously in scope. Three specialties have emerged during the last 50 years; namely, diagnostic radiology, therapeutic radiology, and nuclear medicine.

A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D.

In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

A. Blood pressure 94/60.
B. Heart rate 76.
C. Urine output 50 ml/hour.
D. Respiratory rate 16.

Answer: A: Blood pressure 94/60

Both medications decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure must be within normal range (HR 60-100; systolic BP over 100) in order to safely administer both medications.

The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift.

Which of these clients would the nurse put first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

A- A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
B- A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
C- An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
D- An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Answer: A:

A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over 7 years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
The best candidate for discharge is one who has had a chronic condition and is most familiar with their care.
This client in option A is most likely stable and could continue medication therapy at home.