Showing posts with label Common Questions. Show all posts

all are irrigation for canals except

all are irrigation for canals except:

A- naocl
B- RC prep

That's correct! Both A. NaOH (sodium hydroxide) and B. RC Prep are not used for irrigating dental canals, making them the exceptions.

Here's a breakdown:

A. NaOH:

As mentioned before, NaOH is a strong base that can severely damage delicate dental tissues and potentially perforate canal walls. Additionally, its high pH disrupts the effectiveness of subsequent cleaning and disinfection steps.

B. RC Prep:

While RC Prep contains useful chelating agents for canal preparation, it's not meant for actual irrigation. It's applied as a gel directly to the canal walls for a short time and then rinsed thoroughly with a dedicated irrigant like NaOCl.

Therefore, the only option left, A. NaOCl (sodium hypochlorite), is the most common and suitable irrigant for dental canals. It provides effective disinfection, dissolves organic matter, and can aid in shaping the canal in controlled concentrations.

Remember:

using inappropriate substances like NaOH or applying RC Prep for irrigation can lead to serious complications. Always follow established protocols and use recommended irrigants under the guidance of a dental professional.

when polishing amalgam rest .....

A- avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste.
B- wait for 24 hours.
C- all of the bove.

When polishing amalgam restorations, all of the above are important factors to consider:

A. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste:

Polishing generates friction, which can lead to heat buildup. Excessive heat can damage the amalgam and the surrounding tooth structure.

Using a wet polishing paste helps to dissipate heat and lubricate the polishing surface, minimizing the risk of thermal damage.

B. Wait for 24 hours:

Freshly placed amalgam restorations are still undergoing a hardening process called "setting." Polishing too early can disrupt this process and compromise the final strength and marginal adaptation of the filling.

Waiting at least 24 hours after placement allows the amalgam to fully set, making it more resistant to the pressures and friction of polishing.

C. Combine both practices for optimal results:

Following both these recommendations ensures a safe and effective polishing process that minimizes the risk of damage and maximizes the longevity of your amalgam restoration.

Additional Tips:

Here are some additional tips for polishing amalgam restorations:

Use light pressure and a gentle touch.
Start with coarser polishing discs or burs and gradually move to finer ones.
Avoid polishing for extended periods on any one spot.
Rinse the restoration frequently with water to remove debris and cool the surface.

By following these guidelines, you can ensure that your amalgam restorations are polished safely and effectively, helping them to last for many years to come.

wich cranial nerve that petrous part of temporal bone houses:

A- trigeminal n.
B- facial n.
C- vagus n.
D- vestibalcochealer n.

The correct answer is A, trigeminal nerve (CN V).

The petrous part of the temporal bone houses the trigeminal ganglion, which is the sensory ganglion of the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for sensation in the face, scalp, and teeth.

Other Options:

Here's why the other options are incorrect:

B, facial nerve (CN VII):

While the facial nerve passes through the petrous part of the temporal bone via the internal acoustic meatus, it does not have a ganglion within this area.

C, vagus nerve (CN X):

The vagus nerve does not pass through the petrous part of the temporal bone. It has a small branch that runs through the mastoid canaliculus, which is located in the mastoid part of the temporal bone.

D, vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII):

The vestibulocochlear nerve also passes through the internal acoustic meatus alongside the facial nerve, but it does not have a ganglion within the petrous part of the temporal bone.

Therefore, based on its location and association with the trigeminal ganglion, the trigeminal nerve (CN V) is the one housed within the petrous part of the temporal bone.

overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:

A- it provides ideal location for plaque accumulation
B- it tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss
C- stimulate inflammatory reaction directly
D- its removal permits more effective plaque control
E- a & d***

Unfortunately, I cannot determine the correct answer without knowing the context of the question.

The five options you provided could be related to various things, such as:

- Dental health:

These options could be describing the effects of different factors on the gums, such as calculus (tartar), inflammation, and attachment loss.

- Medical condition:

They might be describing the ways a specific disease or pathogen affects the body.

- Material property:

The options could be describing the properties of a certain material used in a specific application.

To provide the correct answer and explanation, I need more information about the context of the question. Please provide details about the topic, the subject matter, or any other relevant information that might help me understand what the question is asking.

Odontogenic infection can cause Least complication:

A- Pulmonary abscess.
B- Peritonitis.
C- Prosthetic valve infection.
D- cavernous sinus thrombosis.

The least likely complication to be caused by an odontogenic infection among the listed options is: D - Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Here's why:

- Pulmonary abscess:

While less common than some other complications, odontogenic infections can spread to the lungs through the bloodstream or aspiration of infected material, leading to abscess formation.

- Peritonitis:

Although rare, severe odontogenic infections can spread to the abdominal cavity through the lymphatic system or direct perforation of the diaphragm, causing peritonitis.

- Prosthetic valve infection:

Individuals with prosthetic heart valves are at increased risk of developing infections from any source, including odontogenic bacteria. These infections can be serious and require prompt treatment.

- Cavernous sinus thrombosis:

This is a potentially life-threatening complication of odontogenic infections that occurs when bacteria spread to the cavernous sinus, a large vein located at the base of the skull. It can cause severe symptoms like headache, vision loss, and stroke.

Therefore, while all the listed complications are possible, cavernous sinus thrombosis is the least likely due to its specific location and the complex pathway required for bacteria to reach it from the oral cavity. However, it's important to note that any odontogenic infection has the potential to be serious and should be treated promptly to minimize the risk of any complications.

compared to herpetic ulcers... aphthous ulcers are:

A- small size?
B- in mucosa lining
C- leave scars.

the most accurate distinction between aphthous and herpetic ulcers in the provided options is: A. Smaller size.

You're on the right track! Here's the breakdown:

A. Smaller size:

Yes, this is correct. Aphthous ulcers are typically smaller than herpetic ulcers, usually ranging from a few millimeters to 1 centimeter in diameter. Herpetic ulcers, on the other hand, can be larger and cluster together, appearing as blisters.

B. In mucosa lining:

Yes, both types occur in the mucosa lining. Aphthous ulcers commonly affect the inner cheeks, lips, tongue, and gum tissue. Herpetic ulcers primarily appear on the lips and gums, but can also occur on the tongue and palate.

C. Leave scars:

No, this is not accurate. While herpetic ulcers can sometimes leave temporary scars, aphthous ulcers typically heal without scarring.

Therefore, the most accurate distinction between aphthous and herpetic ulcers in the provided options is: A. Smaller size.

dry socket happen after:

A- 24 h
B- 3-5days
C- 1week
D- 2weeks

You're absolutely right! Out of the options you provided, B (3-5 days) is the most likely timeframe for dry socket to occur after a tooth extraction.

Here's why:

After a tooth extraction, a blood clot forms in the socket to protect the underlying bone and nerves.
Dry socket happens when this blood clot dislodges or dissolves before the wound has had a chance to heal properly.
This typically occurs within 3-5 days after the extraction, although it can happen slightly earlier or later in some cases.

Other Options:

While the other options are not impossible, they are less likely:

A- (24 hours):

While dry socket can theoretically occur within 24 hours, it's less common than the 3-5 day window.

C- (1 week):

Dry socket symptoms usually peak within 3-5 days and start to improve after that. It's less likely to be present a full week after the extraction.

D- (2 weeks):

By 2 weeks after the extraction, the wound should be significantly healed, and dry socket is highly unlikely.

Therefore, based on the typical timeframe for dry socket development, B (3-5 days) is the most accurate answer.

Compomer restorative materials are:

A- Glass ionomer with polymer components.
B- Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses.
C- Composite resin for cervical restorations only.

The most accurate answer about compomer restorative materials is: A. Glass ionomer with polymer components.

Here's why the other options are incorrect:

B. Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses:

While some materials may use fluoride-containing glasses, this is not the defining characteristic of a compomer. Resin systems refer to composite resins, which are distinct from compomers.

C. Composite resin for cervical restorations only:

Composite resins are a different type of restorative material with distinct properties and are not limited to cervical restorations. Compomers are used for various situations besides cervical restorations.

Compomers:

Therefore, compomers are classified as a hybrid material combining the functionalities of both glass ionomer cement and composite resin. They contain:

- Glass ionomer components:

These provide fluoride release and adhesive properties to tooth structure.

- Polymer components:

These offer strength and aesthetic advantages compared to pure glass ionomer cements.

This combination offers specific advantages, such as fluoride release, ease of handling, and good wear resistance, making compomers suitable for various applications in dentistry.

statement true or false:

RCT abutment of FPD have higher risk for fracture.abutment which have RCT in cantilever FPD have higher susceptibility to fracture

A- 1st is true,2nd is false
B- 1st is false,2nd is true-
C- both are false
D- both are true

The correct answer is D- both are true.

Here's why:

- 1st statement:

RCT abutments of FPD do have a higher risk for fracture compared to vital abutments. This is because endodontic treatment weakens the tooth structure due to removal of dentin and placement of filling materials. Additionally, post-and-core restorations further compromise the remaining tooth structure.

- 2nd statement:

Abutments with RCT in cantilever FPDs indeed have a higher susceptibility to fracture. Cantilever FPDs place greater stress on the supporting abutment due to the unsupported extension of the bridge. When this stress is combined with a weakened RCT tooth, the risk of fracture significantly increases.

Several studies have supported these findings, highlighting the increased risk of fracture for RCT abutments, especially in cantilever designs. Therefore, both statements are true.

It's important to note that while RCT teeth can be viable abutments for FPDs with proper management, their increased susceptibility to fracture requires careful treatment planning and fabrication techniques to minimize the risk.

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:

a- Osmosis
b- Active transport
c- Filtration
d- Diffusion.

You are absolutely correct! The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called (a- Osmosis).

Here's a breakdown of the options and why osmosis is the most fitting answer:

a- Osmosis:

This is the movement of water molecules from a region of low solute concentration (hypotonic solution) to a region of high solute concentration (hypertonic solution) through a selectively permeable membrane that allows water molecules to pass through but not solutes. This process helps maintain balance between the concentrations of solutions on either side of the membrane.

b- Active transport:

This refers to the movement of molecules across a membrane against their concentration gradient, requiring energy from the cell in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate). Water movement in osmosis is a passive process and doesn't require energy.

c- Filtration:

This involves the separation of a liquid from a solid or colloid mixture using a filter that allows the liquid to pass through but not the solid particles. While water can be involved in filtration, it's not the same as the specific movement of water molecules across a membrane in osmosis.

d- Diffusion:

This is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration, driven by random thermal motion. While water molecules can diffuse, osmosis specifically refers to the movement of water across a membrane.

Therefore, osmosis is the most accurate term for the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane as it describes the specific flow of water molecules based on their concentration differences.

which of the following may cause gingival enlargement:

a- phenyntoin (dilantin)***
b- cyclosporine
c- nifedipine ( a calcium channel blocker)
d- aspirin
e- none of the above

The correct answer is a- phenyntoin (dilantin).

Gingival enlargement, also known as drug-induced gingival hyperplasia (DIGH), is a common side effect of certain medications, including phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication used to treat seizures. It is thought that phenytoin causes gingival enlargement by interfering with the normal growth and development of gingival tissue.

The other answer choices are less likely to cause gingival enlargement:

b- Cyclosporine:

Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication used to prevent organ rejection after transplant. It is not typically associated with gingival enlargement.

c- Nifedipine (a calcium channel blocker):

Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker medication used to treat high blood pressure. It is not typically associated with gingival enlargement.

d- Aspirin:

Aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to treat pain, fever, and inflammation. NSAIDs can cause some minor gingival overgrowth, but it is not as common or severe as drug-induced gingival hyperplasia.

e- None of the above:

While the other answer choices may cause some minor gingival changes, phenytoin (Dilantin) is the most likely cause of significant gingival enlargement.

Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radioopaque areas in the canine premolar area region of the mandible is:

a) Hematoma.
b) Remaining roots.
c) Torus mandibularis ***
d) Internal oblique ridge.
e) Genial tubercle.

what is the amount in mg in 1.8 ml of xylocain:

a- 20 mg/ml
b- 1.8 mg/ml
c - 3.6 mg***

vibrating line:

b/w hard & soft palate
b/w mobile and non mobile soft tissue

the radiographic criteria used for evaluating the successes of endodontic therapy:

a- reduction of the size of the periapical lesion***
b- no response to percussion and palpation test
c- extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals

the indication for the use lingual plate major connector include:

a- for the purpose of retention
b- when the lingual frenum is high or when there is a shallow lingual sulcus
c- to prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth
d- all of the above***

pit and fissure sealant:

new erupted teeth.
deep fissure and pits in molars.

proximal caries

a&b.

Most commonly dentigerous cysts are associated with:15-

a- Unerupted permanent maxillary canines
b- Unerupted mandibular third molars***

dentinogenisis imperfecta have all except:

broken enamel
blue sclera
broken bone
super numerary teeth

Are shell teeth seen in dentinogenesis imperfecta?

Dentinogenesis imperfecta type III:

The clinical features are variable and resemble those seen in DGI-I and -II but the primary teeth show multiple pulp exposures and radiographically, they often manifest "shell" teeth i.e. teeth which appear hollow due to hypotrophy of the dentine.

What are the 4 types of Amelogenesis imperfecta?

The main types are: hypoplastic (type I); hypomaturation (type II); hypocalcified (type III); and hypomaturation/hypoplasia/taurodontism (type IV).

What is dentinogenesis imperfecta associated with?

Dentinogenesis imperfecta results in dentin defects and is usually inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. The most common manifestation is opalescent dentin, which may be associated with osteogenesis imperfecta (seeChapter 22).

What are the features of dentinogenesis imperfecta?

Description. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a disorder of tooth development. This condition causes the teeth to be discolored (most often a blue-gray or yellow-brown color) and translucent. Teeth are also weaker than normal, making them prone to rapid wear, breakage, and loss.

acute periapical abcess associated withm

a- swelling***
b- widening of PDL
c- pus discharge